Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 16, 2025
Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 16, 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding the doctrine of ultra vires in the Indian constitutional framework:
Ultra vires doctrine applies only to delegated legislation and not to primary legislation enacted by Parliament.
The constitution can be amended to explicitly permit Parliament to enact laws beyond the scope of Article 246.
If a subordinate legislation violates the substantive scope of the parent statute, it can be declared unconstitutional even if the parent statute is valid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
2. Which of the following institutional mechanisms primarily functions to promote cooperative federalism in contemporary India by fostering policy coordination and collaborative planning between the Centre and States?
(A) National Development Council (NDC)
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Interstate Council
3. Consider the following statements about the concurrent list under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
In case of conflict between Union and State legislation on a concurrent list subject, the State law prevails if it was previously reserved for Presidential assent and received his approval.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment shifted certain subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List as part of constitutional restructuring.
Education is a concurrent list subject, allowing both Parliament and State legislatures to formulate policies independently without coordination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3
4. In the landmark case of Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others (1992), the Supreme Court made significant observations regarding the Tenth Schedule. Which of the following was NOT among the key holdings of the Court in this judgment?
(A) The Speaker/Chairman acts as a tribunal while adjudicating disqualification petitions and such decisions are subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides and perversity.
(B) The Tenth Schedule was constitutional despite challenges regarding the procedure for amendment ratification by states.
(C) The presiding officer’s decisions on disqualification are final and cannot be questioned in any court of law.
(D) The Speaker must act as a neutral adjudicator not influenced by political affiliations of defecting members.
5. The basic structure doctrine, as established in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case, essentially means:
(A) Parliament has absolute power to amend any part of the Constitution through Article 368.
(B) Certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered or destroyed, even through constitutional amendment.
(C) Amendments to the Constitution require ratification by all State legislatures without exception.
(D) The Fundamental Rights can never be amended under any circumstance, as they are immutable.
6. Consider the following provisions related to the Panchayati Raj system established by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
All States without exception must constitute a three-tier Panchayati Raj structure at village, intermediate, and district levels.
Chairpersons at the district and intermediate levels are directly elected by voters, while village-level Chairpersons are elected by the Panchayat members.
The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution specifies the functions and responsibilities to be devolved to Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) None of the above
7. Regarding the jurisdictional scope of writs issued under Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) The Supreme Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose as prescribed.
(B) High Courts can issue writs only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and not for any other legal right.
(C) Writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari are all available under both Articles 32 and 226.
(D) A High Court can exercise writ jurisdiction in relation to territories within which the cause of action arises, even if the seat of the authority is outside its jurisdiction.
8. In the context of the I.R. Coelho case (2007) and subsequent judicial developments, which statement most accurately reflects the Supreme Court’s stance on the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be subject to any judicial scrutiny under any circumstance.
(B) Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule before April 24, 1973, are immune from judicial review, but those added after this date can be challenged if they violate the basic structure.
(C) The Ninth Schedule can be amended by Parliament through a simple majority, without amending other provisions.
(D) All laws in the Ninth Schedule must be ratified by State Assemblies before they become operational.
9. Consider the relationship between delegated legislation and the concept of “essential legislative function” in Indian constitutional jurisprudence:
The legislature can delegate all its powers to the executive without any constitutional limitation.
An implied limit of the Constitution is that essential legislative functions cannot be delegated by the legislature.
If an enabling statute delegates all legislative powers to the executive, it violates the implied constitutional limit and becomes ultra vires.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only
10. Which of the following best characterizes the distinction between “cooperative federalism” and “competitive federalism” in the Indian constitutional structure?
(A) Cooperative federalism emphasizes states competing for resources, while competitive federalism emphasizes collaboration between Centre and States.
(B) Cooperative federalism involves horizontal collaboration among States for common goals, while competitive federalism involves vertical competition between Centre and States.
(C) Cooperative federalism involves Centre-State collaboration for national objectives, while competitive federalism involves States competing among themselves for investment and efficiency improvements.
(D) Both concepts refer to the same mechanism of governance and the terms are used interchangeably in constitutional literature.
Answer Key and Explanations
Question 1: Answer – (C)
Explanation:
The ultra vires doctrine is a fundamental principle in constitutional and administrative law that restricts authorities from exceeding their delegated powers.
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The ultra vires doctrine applies to both delegated legislation and, through the doctrine of constitutional ultra vires, to primary legislation as well. If Parliament enacts a law violating the constitutional framework (e.g., beyond Article 245’s territorial scope), it can be declared unconstitutional through judicial review.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The Constitution cannot be amended to remove fundamental limits on Parliamentary power. The basic structure doctrine, established in Kesavananda Bharati (1973), prevents amendments that would destroy the Constitution’s foundational framework. Article 368 itself embodies this limitation—it grants limited, not unlimited, amending power.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: This is a well-established principle. If an enabling act is valid but the subordinate/delegated legislation made under it exceeds the scope granted by the parent statute or violates the Constitution, such delegated legislation becomes ultra vires and void. The parent statute remains valid because the defect lies in the delegate’s exercise of power, not in the delegating authority’s authority itself.
Question 2: Answer – (B)
Explanation:
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) replaced the Planning Commission and has become the primary institutional mechanism for promoting cooperative federalism in contemporary India.
Why NITI Aayog is correct:
NITI Aayog actively fosters policy coordination between the Centre and States
It facilitates collaborative planning and implementation of development initiatives
It serves as a platform where states participate in national policy formulation
It promotes evidence-based policymaking through Centre-State cooperation
Why other options are incorrect:
NDC was the earlier mechanism but has been superseded by NITI Aayog
Finance Commission primarily addresses fiscal federalism and revenue distribution, not cooperative policy coordination
Interstate Council deals with inter-state disputes and coordination but is not the primary promoter of cooperative federalism in the current framework
Question 3: Answer – (A)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is CORRECT: Article 254(2) of the Constitution provides that if a State Law on a concurrent list matter is reserved for Presidential assent and receives his approval, it shall prevail in that State, even if it conflicts with Union legislation. However, Parliament can subsequently legislate on the same matter, which would then prevail.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) was a significant constitutional reform that shifted five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List: (1) Education, (2) Forests, (3) Weights and Measures, (4) Electricity, and (5) Gas. This centralization was part of the Emergency-era constitutional restructuring.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: While education is indeed a concurrent list subject, the statement’s claim that legislatures can formulate policies “independently without coordination” is misleading. On concurrent list subjects, both can legislate, but Union legislation prevails in case of conflict. Additionally, policy coordination is often necessary for national standards and uniformity.
Question 4: Answer – (C)
Explanation:
The Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) was pivotal in shaping anti-defection law jurisprudence. This question tests understanding of the Court’s actual holdings versus common misconceptions.
The correct answer (C) states what the Court REJECTED:
Originally, the 10th Schedule provided that the Speaker’s/Chairman’s decision was final and unchallengeable.
The Supreme Court INVALIDATED this provision, holding it violated judicial review protections under Articles 131-136
The Court declared that speakers function as tribunals, and their decisions are subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides, perversity, and procedural irregularities
Options A, B, and D reflect actual holdings:
(A) Correctly describes the tribunal role and judicial review scope
(B) Correctly states the 10th Schedule’s constitutional validity despite procedural challenges
(D) Correctly reflects the requirement for Speaker neutrality (Ravi S. Naik case, 1994)
Question 5: Answer – (B)
Explanation:
The basic structure doctrine is among the most important doctrines in Indian constitutional jurisprudence, established in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).
Why (B) is correct:
The doctrine establishes that while Parliament has power to amend the Constitution, this power is NOT unlimited. Certain basic, fundamental features—such as the supremacy of the Constitution, democratic and republican character, secular nature, separation of powers, federalism, and protection of fundamental rights—cannot be altered or destroyed even through constitutional amendment. This ensures the Constitution’s core identity remains intact.
Why other options are incorrect:
(A) Is expressly contradicted by the basic structure doctrine itself
(C) While some amendments do require state ratification (e.g., changes to federalism), this is not the essence of the basic structure doctrine
(D) Is factually incorrect—Fundamental Rights CAN be amended (as seen with various amendments like the 44th), but only to the extent that the basic structure remains unharmed
Question 6: Answer – (C)
Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) introduced Part IX on Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243O) and the Eleventh Schedule.
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The Constitution provides flexibility. Article 243B states that States with populations below 20 lakhs may opt NOT to constitute an intermediate tier. Thus, while uniformity is encouraged, a three-tier structure is not absolutely mandatory for all states.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The election method differs by tier:
Village level: Chairperson election method is determined by the State (can be direct or indirect)
Intermediate and District levels: Chairpersons are elected INDIRECTLY from among elected members, not directly by voters
Statement 3 is CORRECT: The 73rd Amendment added a new Eleventh Schedule specifying 29 functional domains for Panchayats, including agriculture, health, education, water supply, social welfare, etc. This schedule delineates the functional responsibilities to be devolved to local bodies.
Question 7: Answer – (B)
Explanation:
This question tests understanding of the scope and jurisdictional reach of writ powers under the Indian Constitution.
Why (B) is INCORRECT (and thus the answer):
The statement restricts High Courts’ writ jurisdiction too narrowly. Under Article 226, High Courts can issue writs not just for Fundamental Rights enforcement but for ANY legal right or purpose. This is explicitly stated in Article 226, which provides writs for “enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.”
Why other options are CORRECT:
(A) Accurately reflects Supreme Court’s writ power under Article 32
(C) Correctly states that all five writs are available under both articles
(D) Accurately describes territorial jurisdiction principles—a High Court can issue writs even if the authority’s seat is outside its territory, if the cause of action arises within its jurisdiction (important for PILs and preventive actions)
Question 8: Answer – (B)
Explanation:
This question addresses the evolution of judicial thinking regarding the Ninth Schedule following the I.R. Coelho case (2007).
Why (B) is correct:
The I.R. Coelho judgment was landmark in establishing that:
Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule AFTER April 24, 1973 (the date of Kesavananda Bharati) are NOT immune from judicial scrutiny
Such laws can be challenged if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution
However, laws added BEFORE this date enjoy immunity from judicial review (retrospective immunity)
Why other options are incorrect:
(A) Is factually wrong; post-1973 laws can be judicially scrutinized
(C) Ninth Schedule amendments require the full constitutional amendment procedure (Article 368), not just simple majority
(D) There is no requirement of state ratification for Ninth Schedule laws specifically; regular constitutional procedures apply
Question 9: Answer – (B)
Explanation:
This question tests understanding of the limitations on delegated legislation and the principle of non-delegability of essential legislative functions.
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The legislature cannot delegate ALL its powers without limitation. There is an implied constitutional constraint derived from the basic structure doctrine and the principle of separation of powers.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: A fundamental principle of constitutional law is that while legislatures can delegate certain powers to the executive (for purposes of making rules, regulations, etc.), they CANNOT delegate “essential legislative functions.” This maintains the Constitution’s structural integrity and prevents executive overreach. The rationale is that decisions on essential policy matters must remain with the elected legislature.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: If an enabling statute attempts to delegate ALL legislative functions to the executive without any guidelines, standards, or limitations, it becomes ultra vires the Constitution. The Supreme Court has struck down such provisions as violating constitutional limits on delegation.
The correct statements are 2 and 3.
Question 10: Answer – (C)
Explanation:
Understanding the distinction between these two models of federalism is crucial for contemporary Indian governance studies.
Why (C) is correct:
Cooperative Federalism: Emphasizes horizontal and vertical collaboration between Centre and States (and among States) to achieve shared national objectives. Examples: GST Council (Centre-State coordination on taxation), disaster management, poverty alleviation programs
Competitive Federalism: Involves States competing among themselves to attract investment, improve governance, achieve better rankings in development indices, and implement innovative policies. Example: States competing in the “Ease of Doing Business” rankings
Why other options are incorrect:
(A) Reverses the definitions—this is exactly backwards
(B) Mischaracterizes both concepts; cooperative federalism includes horizontal collaboration too, and competitive federalism isn’t about Centre-State competition
(D) Factually incorrect—these are distinct concepts serving different functions in India’s governance framework
The dual framework allows India to balance national unity and policy coordination (cooperative) with innovation and regional competition (competitive).
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