Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 2, 2025

Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 2, 2025

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935:

1. It abolished dyarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy.
2. The residuary powers were vested in the Federal Legislature.
3. It provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.
4. The Federal Court established under this Act had exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and the provinces.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q2. With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1892, consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘election’ was deliberately avoided in the Act, though an element of indirect election was introduced.
2. Members of the legislative councils were given the right to ask supplementary questions on matters of public interest.
3. The universities, district boards, and municipalities were empowered to recommend members to the provincial councils.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. The Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883 was related to:

1. Removal of disqualification of Indian judges to try Europeans in criminal cases.
2. Introduction of local self-government institutions in British India.
3. Reforms in the Indian Civil Service examination system.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the concept of ‘Popular Sovereignty’ as distinguished from ‘Legal Sovereignty’?

(a) It signifies that the Parliament has the overriding power to pass laws in the country.
(b) It denotes that the final authority in the state lies with the people who delegate power to their representatives.
(c) It refers to the exclusive jurisdiction of the judiciary to interpret constitutional provisions.
(d) It means that sovereignty is shared between the Centre and the States in a federal setup.

Q5. With reference to the jurisdiction and powers of the High Court in India, consider the following statements:

1. Article 226 empowers the High Court to issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. The High Court has the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction under Article 227.
3. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law requiring constitutional interpretation under Article 228.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Centre-State relations during a National Emergency under Article 352:

1. The Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any matter in the State List while a proclamation of emergency is in operation.
2. The President can modify the provisions relating to the distribution of revenues between the Centre and the States.
3. The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to Article 22 of the Constitution (Protection against arrest and detention), consider the following statements:

1. Every person arrested must be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey.
2. The safeguards under Article 22(1) and 22(2) are available to both citizens and non-citizens including enemy aliens.
3. Preventive detention cannot exceed three months unless an Advisory Board headed by a High Court judge approves an extension.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy are classified as ‘Socialistic Principles’?

1. Securing equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. Promoting cottage industries on an individual or cooperative basis in rural areas.
3. Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
4. Free legal aid to ensure justice on the basis of equal opportunity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q9. Consider the following features:

1. Separation of powers between the legislature and the executive.
2. Double membership of the executive in the legislature.
3. Fixed tenure of the executive.
4. Real executive head is different from the nominal executive.

Which of the above are features of a Parliamentary System of Government?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q10. With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), consider the following statements:

1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Constitution.
2. The Commission has the powers of a civil court while investigating any complaint.
3. The annual report of the Commission is submitted to the Prime Minister who causes it to be laid before the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

Q1. Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished dyarchy at the provincial level (which was introduced by the Act of 1919) and granted provincial autonomy. However, it introduced dyarchy at the Centre, though this provision never came into effect.​
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The residuary powers under the Act of 1935 were vested in the Governor-General, not the Federal Legislature. This was a significant departure from typical federal principles where residuary powers go to either the central or state legislatures.​
• Statement 3 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which was established in 1935.​
• Statement 4 is correct. The Act established a Federal Court in 1937, which had exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Centre and the provinces, and appellate jurisdiction over High Court judgments.​

Q2. Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 introduced an element of indirect election in the selection of non-official members, though the term ‘election’ was deliberately avoided in the Act.​
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the 1892 Act, members were given the right to ask questions on matters of public interest but not supplementary questions. The right to ask supplementary questions was granted later by the Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms).​
• Statement 3 is correct. The universities, district boards, municipalities, zamindars, trade bodies, and chambers of commerce were empowered to recommend members to the provincial councils, introducing the principle of representation.​

Q3. Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

The Ilbert Bill controversy of 1883 was specifically related to the proposal by Courtenay Ilbert, the law member of the Viceroy’s Council during Lord Ripon’s administration, to remove the judicial disqualification that prevented Indian judges and magistrates from trying European offenders in criminal cases. Prior to this bill, Europeans could only be tried by European judges.​

The bill was met with fierce opposition from the European community in India, who argued on racial grounds that Indian judges were unfit to preside over cases involving Europeans. The controversy ultimately led to a compromise where Indian judges could try Europeans only if a jury was present, with at least half of its members being Europeans.​

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect as the Ilbert Bill had nothing to do with local self-government or ICS examination reforms.

Q4. Answer: (b) It denotes that the final authority in the state lies with the people who delegate power to their representatives.

Explanation:

Popular sovereignty is the principle that the authority of the state and its government is created and sustained by the consent of the people. In this concept, sovereignty resides with the people who exercise it through their elected representatives.​

• Option (a) describes Legal or Parliamentary Sovereignty, where Parliament has the overriding power to pass laws.
• Option (c) relates to judicial interpretation, not sovereignty as a concept.
• Option (d) describes the division of powers in a federal setup, not popular sovereignty.

In India, the concept of popular sovereignty is enshrined in the Preamble which begins with “We, the People of India,” indicating that the ultimate power lies with the citizens.​

Q5. Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 226 empowers the High Court to issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo-warranto) not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also “for any other purpose.” This is broader than the Supreme Court’s writ jurisdiction under Article 32, which is limited to enforcement of Fundamental Rights only.​
• Statement 2 is correct. Article 227 confers the power of superintendence on the High Court over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction.​
• Statement 3 is correct. Article 228 empowers the High Court to withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law requiring constitutional interpretation.​

Q6. Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. During a National Emergency, the Parliament is empowered to make laws on any matter in the State List under Article 250, though such laws cease to have effect six months after the emergency ends.​
• Statement 2 is correct. During a National Emergency, the President may modify the constitutional provisions relating to the distribution of revenues between the Centre and the States under Article 354.​
• Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 83(2), while a proclamation of emergency is in operation, Parliament may by law extend the term of the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding one year at a time, and not extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate.​

Q7. Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 22(2) provides that every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of such arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate.​
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The safeguards under Article 22(1) and 22(2) are not available to enemy aliens and persons arrested under preventive detention laws. Article 22(3) specifically excludes these categories from the protections of clauses (1) and (2).​
• Statement 3 is correct. Under Article 22(4), preventive detention cannot exceed three months unless an Advisory Board (which must include a serving or retired High Court judge) reports that there is sufficient cause for such detention.​

Q8. Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

The Socialistic Principles in DPSPs aim to establish a welfare state with social and economic justice. These include:​

• Statement 1 (Correct): Article 39(d) – Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is a socialistic principle.
• Statement 2 (Incorrect): Promoting cottage industries is classified as a Gandhian Principle under Article 43, not a socialistic principle.​
• Statement 3 (Correct): Article 39(c) – Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production is a socialistic principle.
• Statement 4 (Correct): Article 39A – Free legal aid to ensure justice on the basis of equal opportunity is a socialistic principle.​

Other socialistic principles include Article 38 (promoting welfare and minimizing inequalities), Article 41 (right to work and education), Article 42 (just and humane conditions of work), Article 43A (participation of workers in management), and Article 47 (raising nutrition levels and standard of living).​

Q9. Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Features of a Parliamentary System:​

• Feature 1 is WRONG for Parliamentary System: Separation of powers is a characteristic of the Presidential System, not Parliamentary. In a Parliamentary system, there is fusion/coordination between the legislature and executive.
• Feature 2 is CORRECT: Double membership means the executive members (Prime Minister and Council of Ministers) are also members of the legislature. This is a key feature of the Parliamentary system.​
• Feature 3 is WRONG for Parliamentary System: Fixed tenure is a feature of the Presidential System. In Parliamentary systems, the executive does not have a fixed tenure and can be removed through a vote of no-confidence.
• Feature 4 is CORRECT: In a Parliamentary system, there is a distinction between the nominal executive (President/Monarch) and the real executive (Prime Minister). The President is the head of state, while the PM is the head of government.​

Q10. Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Constitution. It was separated from the combined National Commission for SCs and STs by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.​
• Statement 2 is correct. While investigating any complaint or matter, the Commission has powers of a civil court trying a suit, including summoning persons, requiring production of documents, receiving evidence on affidavits, and requisitioning public records.​
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The annual report of the Commission is submitted to the President (not the Prime Minister), who causes it to be laid before each House of Parliament.​

Daily Static Quiz