Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 23, 2025

Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 23, 2025

Question 1

Consider the following statements regarding the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

I. A legislator can be disqualified on grounds of defection if they vote contrary to the direction issued by their political party on a matter of national importance.

II. The presiding officer’s decision on disqualification is final and cannot be subject to judicial review under any circumstances.

III. If a legislator crosses over to another party, they lose their membership immediately without waiting for the presiding officer’s order.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) None of the above

Question 2

With reference to the promulgation of Ordinances under the Indian Constitution, consider the following:

I. An Ordinance can amend the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Part III of the Constitution.

II. An Ordinance issued by the Governor must be approved by the state legislature within six weeks from the first sitting of the reassembled legislature.

III. An Ordinance has the same legal status as an Act passed by the legislature during its session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only II

(b) I and III

(c) II and III

(d) All three

Question 3

In the context of the Basic Structure Doctrine as established by Indian courts, consider the following statements:

I. The doctrine prevents Parliament from amending any provision of the Constitution, even if the amendment affects the fundamental rights of citizens.

II. The doctrine applies retroactively to all constitutional amendments made before its judicial pronouncement.

III. Federalism and the independence of the judiciary are components of the basic structure that cannot be destroyed by constitutional amendments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) III only

(c) I and III

(d) II and III

Question 4

Consider the following regarding the residuary powers of legislation in the Indian federal system:

I. Residuary powers are those legislative powers that are not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List.

II. Under Article 248, residuary powers are vested exclusively in Parliament.

III. A State Legislature can exercise residuary powers within its territory in matters not covered by any of the three lists.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III

(d) All three

Question 5

With reference to the role and powers of the Governor in a State, consider the following:

I. A Governor can withhold assent to a bill passed by the state legislature, but this withholding cannot be indefinite; the bill must be reconsidered.

II. When a bill is reserved for the President’s consideration under Article 200, the Governor’s decision becomes merely recommendatory and final authority rests with the President.

III. A Governor can exercise discretionary powers in appointing the Chief Minister even when there is a clear single-party majority in the state assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II only

(c) I only

(d) III only

Question 6

Consider the following statements about the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

I. Laws made by the Union Parliament on a subject in the Concurrent List automatically supersede state laws on the same subject.

II. Once Parliament legislates on a subject in the Concurrent List, states lose the power to legislate on that subject.

III. In case of conflict between Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject, the Union law prevails, but states retain the power to legislate until Parliament acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) III only

(c) I and II

(d) All three

Question 7

With reference to the anti-defection law and the process of disqualification, consider the following:

I. The presiding officer can proceed to decide on a disqualification plea only upon receipt of a written complaint from a member of the House.

II. The presiding officer must decide on the disqualification plea within a constitutionally mandated timeframe to prevent indefinite delays.

III. News reports and media stories can be considered as evidence by the presiding officer while deciding on a disqualification plea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II only

(d) None of the above

Question 8

Consider the following statements regarding the separation of powers in the Indian parliamentary system:

I. The Indian Constitution provides for a strict separation of powers where the legislative, executive, and judicial branches function entirely independently.

II. The principle of separation of powers in India allows for overlap and interdependence between the three branches as a system of checks and balances.

III. The anti-defection law may be seen as constraining the separation of powers by restricting legislators’ independent voting rights in certain circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II and III

(c) III only

(d) All three

Question 9

With reference to the structure and functioning of State Legislatures, consider the following:

I. In a bicameral state legislature, a bill passed by the Legislative Assembly cannot be rejected by the Legislative Council; it can only be delayed.

II. A member of the Legislative Council can be disqualified under the anti-defection law only if they violate the party whip on a money bill.

III. The Legislative Council is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved, though its members serve fixed terms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III

(b) II and III

(c) III only

(d) I, II, and III

Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding constitutional amendments and the amending power of Parliament:

I. Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 is absolute and unlimited.

II. An amendment to the Constitution that affects the boundaries, area, or name of a state requires the consent of that state’s legislature.

III. The basic structure doctrine empowers the judiciary to assess whether a constitutional amendment violates the essential features of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II and III

(c) III only

(d) All three

ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS

Question 1 – Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Under the 10th Schedule, a legislator can be disqualified if they vote or abstain from voting contrary to a direction issued by the political party. This applies to matters as defined by the party’s whip, not limited to “national importance” only, but the core principle is correct—voting against party direction triggers disqualification risk.​

Statement II – INCORRECT: The landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) established that the presiding officer’s decision on disqualification is NOT final. It is subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court and High Courts on grounds of malafides, perversity, or procedural impropriety. However, there must be no judicial intervention until the presiding officer issues their order.​

Statement III – INCORRECT: A legislator does not lose membership immediately upon crossing over to another party. The disqualification process is initiated only when a complaint is filed with the presiding officer, who then decides on the validity of the defection. The member’s membership is suspended pending this decision, not automatic.​

Question 2 – Answer: (a) Only II

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: Ordinances cannot amend Fundamental Rights or any constitutional provisions. An Ordinance is a legislative tool exercised by the Governor when the state legislature is not in session, but it is subordinate to the Constitution and cannot modify constitutional provisions. The President (at the Union level) and Governors (at the state level) cannot use ordinance-making power to alter constitutional texts.​

Statement II – CORRECT: Article 123 (Union) and Article 213 (States) provide that an Ordinance must be laid before the legislature within six weeks from its promulgation (or within six weeks from the first sitting of a reassembled legislature if the legislature is not in session). If the legislature does not approve it within this period, it lapses.​

Statement III – INCORRECT: While an Ordinance has the force of law when promulgated, it is NOT equivalent to an Act passed by the legislature. An Ordinance is temporary and subordinate; it lapses if not approved by the legislature. An Act has permanent status unless repealed by the legislature.​

Question 3 – Answer: (b) III only

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: The Basic Structure Doctrine does NOT prevent Parliament from amending the Constitution. It only limits the scope of amendments—Parliament cannot alter the “basic structure” or essential features of the Constitution. Amendments affecting constitutional articles are permitted; what is prohibited is destruction of fundamental principles like federalism, secularism, rule of law, etc. The judiciary can review amendments but Parliament retains amending power.​

Statement II – INCORRECT: The Basic Structure Doctrine applies PROSPECTIVELY, not retroactively. The principle established in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) was to apply only to future amendments, not to amendments made before the judgment.​

Statement III – CORRECT: Federalism, the independence of the judiciary, separation of powers, judicial review, secularism, and the rule of law are recognized components of the basic structure. Parliament cannot use its amending power under Article 368 to destroy these fundamental features.​

Question 4 – Answer: (a) I and II

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Residuary powers refer to legislative authority over subjects not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.​

Statement II – CORRECT: Article 248 of the Constitution vests residuary powers of legislation exclusively in Parliament (the Union). This is a defining feature of India’s federalism that centralizes residual authority at the Union level.​

Statement III – INCORRECT: State Legislatures cannot exercise residuary powers. The residuary powers belong exclusively to Parliament. This is a critical centralist feature of the Indian Constitution. A State cannot legislate on a matter not specifically assigned to it in the State List or Concurrent List.​

Question 5 – Answer: (a) I and II

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: When a Governor withholds assent to a bill, this is a pocket veto situation. However, the withholding is not indefinite—if the bill is returned for reconsideration and passed again by the legislature, the Governor’s position becomes significantly constrained. The Governor cannot indefinitely prevent a bill from becoming law through withholding assent.​

Statement II – CORRECT: When a Governor reserves a bill for the President’s consideration under Article 200 (bills affecting the jurisdiction of the High Court), the final authority rests with the President. The Governor’s role is to recommend/transmit; the decision is the President’s. This reflects the constitutional hierarchy in federal systems.​

Statement III – INCORRECT: A Governor should not exercise discretionary powers in appointing the Chief Minister when there is a clear single-party majority. The Governor’s discretion is limited to situations of ambiguity or doubt. With an unambiguous majority, the Governor must invite the leader of the majority party/coalition to form the government. Exercising discretion in the presence of clarity is constitutionally improper.​

Question 6 – Answer: (b) III only

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: Laws made by Parliament do not automatically supersede state laws. The rule is that Union law prevails IN CASE OF CONFLICT, but this conflict must actually exist. If Union and State laws on a Concurrent List subject operate in different spheres without conflict, both are valid.​

Statement II – INCORRECT: States do NOT lose the power to legislate on a Concurrent List subject merely because Parliament has legislated. The state retains the power to legislate concurrently unless Parliament uses its power to exclude the State’s legislation. Even if Parliament legislates, states can still legislate on the same subject (with the understanding that Union law prevails in case of conflict).​

Statement III – CORRECT: This accurately describes the concurrent jurisdiction. On Concurrent List matters, both Union and States have legislative power. When both legislate on the same subject and a conflict arises, Union law prevails (Article 254). However, until Parliament legislates or conflicts arise, states retain full legislative authority.​

Question 7 – Answer: (b) I and III

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: According to the rules formulated by the presiding officers under the 10th Schedule, the presiding officer can take cognizance of a disqualification plea only when it is formally filed by a member of the House. The presiding officer cannot initiate disqualification proceedings suo moto.​

Statement II – INCORRECT: The Constitution does NOT prescribe a fixed timeframe for the presiding officer to decide on disqualification pleas. This has been a persistent weakness in the anti-defection mechanism, leading to indefinite delays. Courts have expressed concern but cannot mandate timeframes.​

Statement III – CORRECT: Judicial precedents establish that media reports, news clippings, and electronic media stories can be considered as evidence in disqualification proceedings. The presiding officer has held that there is no reason to consider media reports as inherently untruthful.​

Question 8 – Answer: (b) II and III

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: The Indian Constitution does NOT provide for a strict separation of powers. The Indian system is a PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM where the executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from and remains accountable to the legislature. There is significant overlap and interdependence, not strict separation. The executive and legislature are interlocked.​

Statement II – CORRECT: The principle operates with overlap and interdependence as a system of checks and balances. The executive depends on legislative confidence, the legislature must work through the executive for implementation, and the judiciary reviews both. This mixed model is the reality of the Indian polity.​

Statement III – CORRECT: The anti-defection law restricts legislators from voting independently on certain matters and forces party compliance. This arguably constrains the free exercise of legislative judgment and shifts power toward party leadership, which can be viewed as narrowing the separation of powers principle.​

Question 9 – Answer: (a) I and III

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: In bicameral state legislatures, the Legislative Council cannot reject a bill passed by the Legislative Assembly. Under Article 197, the Council can only delay it for a maximum period. The Assembly has the final say. The Council’s powers are limited to delay and recommendation.​

Statement II – INCORRECT: A member of the Legislative Council is subject to the anti-defection law on the same basis as Assembly members. Disqualification can occur for voting against party whips on any matter, not just money bills. The 10th Schedule applies uniformly to all legislators.​

Statement III – CORRECT: The Legislative Council is indeed a permanent body. The Governor cannot dissolve it. Members serve fixed terms (usually 6 years), with partial retirement, ensuring continuity.​

Question 10 – Answer: (c) III only

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: Parliament’s power under Article 368 is NOT absolute and unlimited. The power is constrained by the Basic Structure Doctrine. Parliament cannot alter the basic features of the Constitution even when it has the numerical majority to pass an amendment. The judiciary can strike down amendments that violate the basic structure.​

Statement II – INCORRECT: While Parliament requires a special majority to amend provisions affecting state boundaries and names (Articles 2 and 3), the consent of the affected state’s legislature is NOT constitutionally required. Parliament can unilaterally alter state boundaries, areas, or names through Article 3 without state consent (though politically, consultation may occur).​

Statement III – CORRECT: This is the essence of the Basic Structure Doctrine. The judiciary, specifically the Supreme Court, has the power to review constitutional amendments and assess whether they violate the basic structure. If an amendment destroys essential features (like federalism, rule of law, secularism), the judiciary can strike it down, as it did with parts of the 25th and 39th Amendments.

Daily Static Quiz

​