Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 9, 2025

Daily Static Quiz (Polity) December 9, 2025

Q1. With reference to Article 29 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The protection of interests of minorities under Article 29(1) is available to any section of citizens with distinct language, script or culture.
2. Article 29(2) restricts denial of admission to state-aided educational institutions on the grounds of religion, race, caste or language.
3. The right conferred by Article 29 is confined exclusively to religious and linguistic minorities.
4. The Supreme Court has held that the term “section of citizens” includes both minorities and majority communities.

Which of the statements above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) All of the above

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Q2. Which of the following most accurately describes the feature that distinguishes Article 39(b) from Article 39(c) of the Indian Constitution in the context of economic policy?

(A) Article 39(b) focuses on distribution of ownership and control of material resources while Article 39(c) aims to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production

(B) Article 39(b) is justiciable while Article 39(c) is non-justiciable

(C) Article 39(b) applies to the Centre while Article 39(c) applies only to States

(D) Article 39(b) was amended by the 44th Amendment while Article 39(c) was part of the original Constitution

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Q3. Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution were incorporated through which amendment, and which committee recommended their inclusion?

(A) 44th Amendment; Swaran Singh Committee

(B) 42nd Amendment; Swaran Singh Committee

(C) 46th Amendment; Sarkaria Commission

(D) 52nd Amendment; Indrajit Gupta Committee

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Q4. The Dhar Commission (1948), JVP Committee (1948), and Fazal Ali Commission (1953) were all concerned with the reorganization of Indian states. Which one of the following correctly represents their chronological recommendations regarding the basis of state formation?

(A) Dhar Commission recommended linguistic basis; JVP Committee opposed it; Fazal Ali Commission finally accepted linguistic basis

(B) All three rejected linguistic basis in favor of administrative convenience

(C) Dhar Commission supported linguistic basis; JVP Committee supported it; Fazal Ali Commission introduced cultural basis

(D) Fazal Ali Commission preceded both other commissions in recommending linguistic reorganization

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Q5. With reference to types of democracy, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Participatory democracy emphasizes direct involvement of citizens in policy-making decisions.
2. Representative democracy and direct democracy are mutually exclusive systems with no overlap.
3. Deliberative democracy focuses on public discussion and rational debate before policy formulation.
4. Elite democracy is a system where all decisions are taken collectively by the masses.

Which of the above are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) All of the above

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Q6. According to various political thinkers, the concept of liberty differs significantly. Which of the following pairs correctly matches the thinker with their concept of liberty?

(A) John Locke – Believed in maximizing state authority to ensure stability; Hobbes – Advocated extensive individual freedoms

(B) J.S. Mill – Distinguished between self-regarding and other-regarding actions in limiting freedom; Locke – Advocated absolute negative liberty without restrictions

(C) Hobbes – Prepared to severely limit liberty for state authority; Mill – Emphasized individual autonomy and minority rights within democratic framework

(D) Laski – Believed liberty should be unlimited; Hobhouse – Advocated a balance between liberty and state responsibility

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Q7. Consider the following statements about motions in Parliament:

1. A closure motion seeks to end debate on a matter and put it to a vote.
2. Substantive motions are self-contained proposals requiring prior consent of the Speaker.
3. Subsidiary motions have independent meaning and can determine the House’s decision without reference to original motion.
4. Amendments are classified as a type of subsidiary motion under ancillary motion.

Which statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

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Q8. With reference to the Anti-Defection Law (10th Schedule) in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The law was inserted into the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985.
2. The deciding authority on disqualification arising from defection is the Presiding Officer of the House.
3. The decision of the Presiding Officer regarding defection is subject to judicial review.
4. The 91st Amendment barred defectors from being appointed as ministers for a period of time.

Which are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) All of the above

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Q9. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India has specific audit functions. Consider the following:

1. CAG audits all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, state consolidated funds, and union territories’ consolidated funds.
2. CAG can audit accounts of government companies and public corporations with equal rigor and scope.
3. CAG’s audit jurisdiction includes trading accounts, profit-loss accounts, and balance sheets of government departments.
4. Once the CAG ceases office, they are ineligible for any further office within the Government of India or any state.

Which statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 4 only

(D) All of the above

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Q10. With reference to Financial Bills I and II under Articles 117(1) and 117(3) of the Indian Constitution respectively, which of the following distinctions is most accurate?

(A) Financial Bill I can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with President’s recommendation and includes matters from Article 110; Financial Bill II can be introduced in either House without President’s recommendation and does not include Article 110 matters

(B) Both types require President’s recommendation; Financial Bill I applies to revenue while Financial Bill II applies to expenditure only

(C) Financial Bill II is more restrictive than Financial Bill I in terms of legislative procedure

(D) Financial Bill I was created by the 42nd Amendment while Financial Bill II was part of the original Constitution

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ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

Q1. ANSWER: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Article 29(1) protects any section of citizens (not just minorities) residing in India with distinct language, script or culture to conserve the same.

Statement 2 is CORRECT: Article 29(2) explicitly prohibits denial of admission to state-run or state-aided educational institutions solely on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT: The Supreme Court has clarified through various judgments that the protection of Article 29 is not confined exclusively to minorities. The use of the term “section of citizens” includes both majority and minority communities.

Statement 4 is CORRECT: In several landmark cases, the Supreme Court has held that “section of citizens” under Article 29 is not limited to minorities and extends to all groups including majorities.

Key Concept: Article 29 and 30 form the cultural and educational rights framework. While Article 30 is restricted to minorities only, Article 29 has broader application to any section of citizens as established by judicial interpretation.

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Q2. ANSWER: (A) Article 39(b) focuses on distribution of ownership and control of material resources while Article 39(c) aims to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production

Explanation:

Article 39(b) specifically directs that “the ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.” This emphasizes the DISTRIBUTION aspect of economic resources.

Article 39(c) states that “the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.” This emphasizes PREVENTING CONCENTRATION, which is the negative counterpart to distribution.

Together, 39(b) and 39(c) form a complementary framework – 39(b) is the positive principle (how to distribute) while 39(c) is the preventive principle (what to avoid).

(B) is incorrect because both are non-justiciable Directive Principles.

(C) is incorrect as both apply uniformly to Union and States.

(D) is incorrect as both were part of the original Constitution’s Directive Principles.

The 42nd Amendment made these provisions receive special protection against challenge under Article 31C.

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Q3. ANSWER: (B) 42nd Amendment; Swaran Singh Committee

Explanation:

Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which added Part IV-A to the Constitution containing Article 51A.

The Swaran Singh Committee (Committee on Fundamental Duties) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution. This was inspired by similar provisions in the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.

Currently, there are 11 Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51A:

– Article 51A(a): Respect Constitution, National Flag, National Anthem
– Article 51A(b): Cherish ideals of freedom struggle
– Article 51A(c): Uphold sovereignty, unity, and integrity
– Article 51A(d): Defend country and render national service
– Article 51A(e): Promote harmony and brotherhood
– Article 51A(f): Preserve public property
– Article 51A(g): Abjure violence
– Article 51A(h): Develop scientific temper
– Article 51A(i): Safeguard public property and abjure violence
– Article 51A(j): Strive for excellence
– Article 51A(k): Provide education to children (6-14 years) – added by 86th Amendment, 2002

These duties are non-justiciable and non-enforceable but serve as moral and civic obligations.

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Q4. ANSWER: (A) Dhar Commission recommended linguistic basis; JVP Committee opposed it; Fazal Ali Commission finally accepted linguistic basis

Explanation:

Chronological Development:

Dhar Commission (June 1948): Also called the Linguistic Provinces Commission, it examined whether states should be reorganized on a linguistic basis. It reported in December 1948 recommending linguistic reorganization, creating significant resentment about hasty reorganization.

JVP Committee (December 1948): Named after Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, this committee was appointed to study Dhar Commission’s recommendations. The JVP Committee rejected immediate linguistic reorganization, arguing administrative convenience should be the basis, fearing linguistic reorganization might threaten national integration.

Fazal Ali Commission (December 1953): After the creation of Andhra State in October 1953 on a linguistic basis, there was renewed demand from other regions. The Fazal Ali Commission (also called States Reorganisation Commission) finally accepted the linguistic basis for state reorganization and submitted its report in September 1955.

States Reorganisation Act 1956: Implemented Fazal Ali Commission’s recommendations, reorganizing India into 14 states and 6 union territories based primarily on linguistic lines.

This progression shows the evolution from initial support (Dhar) → rejection (JVP) → final acceptance (Fazal Ali) of linguistic reorganization, marking a crucial development in Indian federalism.

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Q5. ANSWER: (A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Participatory democracy (also known as direct democracy in broader contexts) emphasizes broad, direct participation of citizens in policy-making decisions. Citizens actively influence or make policy decisions, not merely elect representatives.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Representative democracy and direct democracy are NOT mutually exclusive. Most modern democracies, including India, employ a mixed system where there is representative democracy at larger scales with elements of direct participation through referendums, citizen assemblies, and public consultations. They exist on a spectrum and often overlap.

Statement 3 is CORRECT: Deliberative democracy specifically emphasizes the role of public discussion, debate, and deliberation before policy formulation. Citizens engage in rational dialogue to reach decisions based on reason rather than mere voting. This approach was advocated by philosophers like John Rawls.

Statement 4 is INCORRECT: Elite democracy is characterized by decision-making concentrated in a small group of wealthy, well-educated, or influential individuals—NOT collective decision-making by masses. It’s the opposite of participatory democracy.

Types of Democracy Framework:

– Direct Democracy: Citizens directly decide on policies
– Representative Democracy: Citizens elect representatives to decide
– Participatory Democracy: Citizens actively participate but elected officials implement
– Deliberative Democracy: Emphasis on rational discussion and debate
– Pluralist Democracy: Multiple groups compete for influence
– Elite Democracy: Small group dominates decision-making

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Q6. ANSWER: (C) Hobbes – Prepared to severely limit liberty for state authority; Mill – Emphasized individual autonomy and minority rights within democratic framework

Explanation:

This question tests understanding of contrasting liberal and social contract theories on liberty.

Thomas Hobbes:

– Believed in the social contract where individuals surrender some freedoms to establish state authority
– Prioritized order and security over individual liberty
– Was prepared to accept severe limitation of liberty to maintain state authority and prevent “war of all against all”
– His theory is often cited to justify stronger state control

John Locke:

– Believed in natural rights and limited government
– Emphasized negative liberty (absence of restraints)
– Advocated for separation of powers and checks on government
– Believed state authority should be limited to protect individual freedoms
– However, NOT absolutist—believed reasonable constraints were necessary

John Stuart Mill:

– Distinguished between self-regarding actions (affecting only self) and other-regarding actions (affecting society)
– Advocated individual autonomy and freedom from harm principle
– Emphasized minority rights within democratic framework
– Believed liberty should extend broadly except where it causes harm to others
– This utilitarian approach refined the concept of liberty in modern democracies

Laski, Hobhouse, MacIver:

– Believed liberty requires a responsible government
– Viewed state not as enemy but as facilitator of liberty
– Emphasized positive liberty (capacity to exercise freedom)
– Believed liberty is a social requirement

Option (C) most accurately captures the fundamental difference between Hobbes’ willingness to limit liberty for state authority and Mill’s emphasis on individual autonomy and minority protection.

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Q7. ANSWER: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: A closure motion is explicitly designed to end debate on a matter. Once accepted by the Speaker/Chairman, the debate is halted and the matter is put to a vote. Types include simple closure and closure by compartments.

Statement 2 is CORRECT: Substantive motions are self-contained, independent proposals that can express a decision of the House. All resolutions are substantive motions. They require proper authorization from the Speaker for consideration, which is part of parliamentary procedure.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Subsidiary motions have the OPPOSITE characteristic. They lack independent meaning and cannot determine the House’s decision without reference to the original motion or ongoing proceedings. They are secondary in nature and depend on another motion for context and meaning.

Statement 4 is CORRECT: Amendments are classified as a type of subsidiary motion, specifically under the category of subsidiary motions (which includes ancillary motions, superseding motions, and amendments). Amendments propose to modify or replace specific parts of original motions.

Classification of Motions:

– Main/Substantive Motions: Independent proposals expressing House decisions
– Subsidiary Motions: Dependent on original motion (lack independent meaning)
– Ancillary Motions: Standard procedures
– Superseding Motions: Override ongoing discussions
– Amendments: Modify original proposals
– Privileged Motions: Relate to privileges of House/members
– Closure Motions: End debate and put to vote

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Q8. ANSWER: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Anti-Defection Law was inserted into the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. It added the 10th Schedule to the Constitution, which provides the framework for disqualifying defecting legislators.

The law was designed to prevent political defections motivated by lure of office, material benefits, or other considerations, thereby providing stability to political parties and governments.

Statement 2 is CORRECT: The Presiding Officer of the House (Speaker in Lok Sabha, Chairman in Rajya Sabha) is the deciding authority for any question regarding disqualification arising from defection under the 10th Schedule. The decision lies with this constitutional authority.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT: While the decision-making lies with the Presiding Officer, there is NO time-frame specified within which the Presiding Officer must decide a defection case. This has been a significant criticism of the law. The absence of a definitive timeline can lead to delayed decisions.

Additionally, the Presiding Officer’s decision is NOT fully immune from judicial review, though the scope of review is limited. Courts have intervened in cases of gross abuse or violation of procedure.

Statement 4 is CORRECT: The 91st Amendment Act (2003) modified the Anti-Defection Law. A significant provision bars defectors from being appointed as ministers for a period of time (specifically, for 6 years or till the end of the legislative term, whichever is earlier). This prevents defectors from immediately benefiting from office after defection.

Key Features of Anti-Defection Law:

– Disqualification on ground of voluntary giving up of membership
– Disqualification if member votes against party whip (with exceptions for conscience matters)
– Presiding Officer decides disqualification cases
– Non-justiciable in normal courts initially, though limited judicial review allowed
– Applies to both Union and State legislatures
– Affects representation and ministry formation

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Q9. ANSWER: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Article 148 provides for the CAG’s office, and the Comptroller and Auditor General (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971 defines CAG’s audit jurisdiction. CAG audits:

– All expenditures from Consolidated Fund of India
– Consolidated funds of each State and Union Territories (with Legislative Assemblies)
– This is a core constitutional responsibility

Statement 2 is CORRECT: The CAG’s audit of government companies and public corporations operates under different scopes:

– For government companies: Direct audit by CAG following specific provisions
– For public corporations: While not all undergo total CAG audit, CAG does have audit authority
– The scope and intensity may differ but both fall under CAG’s jurisdiction

The 1971 Act provides specific provisions for auditing government companies and other bodies substantially financed from government revenues.

Statement 3 is CORRECT: The CAG audits all transactions related to:

– Trading accounts, manufacturing accounts
– Profit and loss accounts
– Balance sheets
– Other subsidiary accounts maintained by any department of Central and State governments

This comprehensive audit jurisdiction extends to departmental accounting.

Statement 4 is INCORRECT: Once CAG ceases office, they are technically ineligible for holding any office under the Government of India or state governments, BUT there’s an important distinction:

– They CAN become a Member of Parliament (Union or State)
– They CAN accept judicial appointments (including Supreme Court)
– The restriction is primarily on executive government positions, not ALL public offices

The statement is too absolute in saying they’re ineligible for “any further office”

CAG’s Additional Functions:

– Audit Authority: Over 3000+ entities including government undertakings
– Financial Advisor: To Parliament on spending accountability
– Interpreter: Between administrative officials and elected representatives
– Constitutional Guardian: Ensures financial propriety and constitutional compliance
– Report Submission: To President; both houses discuss CAG reports

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Q10. ANSWER: (A) Financial Bill I can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with President’s recommendation and includes matters from Article 110; Financial Bill II can be introduced in either House without President’s recommendation and does not include Article 110 matters

Explanation:

Financial Bill I (Article 117(1)):

– Introduced in: Lok Sabha ONLY (Lower House)
– President’s Recommendation: REQUIRED before introduction
– Scope: Includes matters from Article 110 (Money Bill provisions) PLUS other general laws
– Legislative Procedure: Similar to Money Bills with restricted Rajya Sabha powers
– Content: Tax proposals and any other legislation that extends financial authority
– Rajya Sabha Role: Can only recommend changes; cannot reject

Financial Bill II (Article 117(3)):

– Introduced in: EITHER House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha)
– President’s Recommendation: REQUIRED if there is expenditure from Consolidated Fund; NOT required if purely regulation-making
– Scope: Contains provisions for expenditure from Consolidated Fund but does NOT include matters from Article 110
– Legislative Procedure: Treated as ordinary bill with full powers to both Houses
– Content: Financial matters NOT covered by Money Bill definition
– Amendment Power: Both Houses can amend and reject

Comparison Table:

| Feature | Financial Bill I | Financial Bill II |
|———|——————|——————-|
| Introduced in | Lok Sabha only | Either House |
| President’s Recommendation | Required | Required (if expenditure) |
| Article 110 matters | Included | Excluded |
| Legislative Procedure | Money Bill procedure | Ordinary Bill procedure |
| Rajya Sabha Powers | Limited (recommend only) | Full (amend, reject) |
| Number of readings | 3 readings in LS, 14 days in RS | Full ordinary procedure |

Why This Distinction Matters:

– Financial Bill I: Gives Government more control through Money Bill procedure for introducing new legislation with financial implications
– Financial Bill II: Provides more democratic scrutiny through ordinary bill procedure when government needs to spend money on matters NOT covered by Money Bill definition

Option (A) is correct because it accurately captures both procedural and substantive distinctions. Options B, C, and D contain inaccuracies about procedural requirements and applicability.

Constitutional Framework:

– Articles 117(1) and 117(3) govern Financial Bills
– Article 110 defines Money Bills
– Article 112 deals with Appropriation Bills
– Together they regulate government’s financial powers

Daily Static Quiz