Daily Static Quiz (Polity) January 6, 2026
Daily Static Quiz (Polity) January 6, 2026
Question 1
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements regarding the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution:
Statement-I: The Parliament can amend the Constitution through a simple majority in both Houses, except for certain provisions that require a special majority.
Statement-II: Amendments relating to the structure and composition of the Parliament, executive authority, and fundamental rights can only be made by a three-fourths majority in both Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 2
Consider the following statements about the relationship between the Union and State Governments in India:
Statement-I: During the passage of a Bill in the concurrent list, if the Union and State Governments have conflicting laws, the Union law prevails, but the State government retains residuary powers.
Statement-II: The President can promulgate an ordinance on any subject listed in the Concurrent List without any restriction, while a State Governor cannot do so on matters in the Concurrent List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only Statement-I is correct
(b) Only Statement-II is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Question 3
With reference to the Executive power of the Union, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The President of India can, on the advice of the Council of Ministers, direct any State Government to comply with Union laws, but such direction cannot override State autonomy in matters exclusively listed in the State List.
Statement-II: Article 256 empowers the Union to compel State Governments to act in a manner consistent with Union law, and this power has been used extensively to enforce national policies even on subjects where the State List applies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 4
Consider the following statements regarding the 10th Schedule of the Constitution (Anti-Defection Law):
Statement-I: A member of a House may be disqualified for defection if they vote against the party’s whip while acting with the party’s prior permission, and the party fails to condone such action within 15 days.
Statement-II: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act modified the anti-defection law by removing the one-third split clause, thereby increasing the threshold for a “merger” from one-third to two-thirds of the party members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only Statement-I is correct
(b) Only Statement-II is correct
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 5
With reference to the Constitutional position of the Governor, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Governor, while exercising discretionary power under Article 163, must consider the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, and any action taken against such advice can be subject to judicial review on the grounds of unconstitutionality.
Statement-II: The Governor cannot summon, prorogue, or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly without the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in circumstances where the constitutional machinery has completely broken down.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 6
Consider the following statements regarding the legislative procedures and powers of Parliament:
Statement-I: A Money Bill can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha if it relates to the imposition of taxes, and such bills cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha but can only be recommended for modification.
Statement-II: An Ordinary Bill requires approval from both Houses and, if disagreement arises, the President can summon a joint sitting where the decision of the majority prevails.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 7
With reference to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Right to Education, guaranteed as a Fundamental Right after the 86th Amendment, can be enforced in courts, while the right to free education for all children, envisioned in the DPSP, is a directive to the State that is not directly enforceable.
Statement-II: A law enacted by Parliament to implement DPSP provisions can restrict a Fundamental Right, provided such restriction is reasonable and serves the objectives outlined in the Directive Principles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 8
Consider the following statements regarding the President’s legislative and executive powers:
Statement-I: The President can withhold assent to a Bill passed by Parliament indefinitely, thereby creating a constitutional deadlock, but such action cannot be challenged as the President’s decision is not subject to judicial review.
Statement-II: The President’s power to issue ordinances (Article 123) is an extraordinary power exercised during parliamentary recess, but ordinances remain subordinate to Acts of Parliament and can be superseded or annulled by any subsequent Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 9
With reference to the distribution of legislative powers in the Seventh Schedule, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A subject appearing in the Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both Parliament and State Legislatures independently, but if their laws conflict on a matter that has been operationalized, the State law shall prevail in cases where the Union has not passed a subsequent enactment.
Statement-II: The Residuary Subjects (those not listed in any of the three lists) fall under the exclusive legislative jurisdiction of Parliament, and the States cannot legislate on any residuary matter even if authorized by a Union statute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Question 10
Consider the following statements regarding the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in India:
Statement-I: Scheduled Areas are notified by the President on the recommendation of the Governor after consultation with the State Assembly, and once notified, the classification cannot be altered or rescinded without following the same procedural requirements.
Statement-II: The 5th Schedule of the Constitution provides for a mechanism of tribal autonomy in Scheduled Areas through provisions like the Tribal Advisory Council, which has statutory powers to approve or reject developmental projects in these areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement-I only
(b) Statement-II only
(c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS
ANSWER TO QUESTION 1: (a) Statement-I only
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct. Article 368 of the Constitution provides a graduated system of amendments:
Simple majority amendments (most provisions fall under this category)
Special majority amendments (two-thirds of members present and voting in both Houses)
Special majority plus state ratification (for matters like federalism structure and representation in Parliament)
Statement-II is misleading and incorrect. The Constitution does not require a “three-fourths” majority for amendments. Rather:
The Constitution uses a two-thirds majority for special amendments (not three-fourths)
Amendments affecting federalism and representation require two-thirds majority PLUS ratification by at least half the state legislatures
This graduated approach ensures that fundamental structural changes require broader consensus while allowing flexibility for other amendments
The question tests understanding of Article 368 and the amendment procedure, a critical area in UPSC Prelims that often appears with nuanced wording to test deep constitutional knowledge rather than surface-level facts.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 2: (d) Both are incorrect
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect because:
When Union and State laws conflict on the Concurrent List, Union law prevails (this part is correct)
However, states do not retain residuary powers on the Concurrent List
Under Article 248, residuary powers (matters not enumerated in any list) belong exclusively to the Union
States have authority only within the scope permitted by Union legislation on the Concurrent List
Statement-II is also incorrect because:
The President can issue ordinances on matters falling within the legislative jurisdiction of Parliament (Union, State, and Concurrent Lists)
The President cannot unilaterally issue ordinances on State List matters (these belong to State Legislatures)
A State Governor, similarly, can issue ordinances only on matters within the State’s legislative authority, which includes concurrent matters where state law has not been preempted
Both have constitutional limitations based on the distribution of legislative powers in the Seventh Schedule
This question tests the federalism architecture and the nuanced distribution of executive ordinance powers—a frequently examined area in recent UPSC papers that requires understanding beyond textbook memorization.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 3: (a) Statement-I only
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:
Article 256 mandates that all executive action by the State shall be consistent with Union laws
However, this power is limited to subjects that fall within the Union’s legislative competence (Union List and Concurrent List)
The Union cannot use Article 256 to interfere in purely State List matters where the Union has no legislative authority
This maintains the federal balance while ensuring cooperative governance
Statement-II is incorrect and misleading:
While Article 256 exists, the statement suggests the President can override State List autonomy, which is unconstitutional
The Supreme Court has consistently held that Article 256 cannot be invoked to compel States to act beyond the Union’s legislative jurisdiction
The extensive use referred to in the statement is an overstatement; courts have curtailed such overreach
This reflects a misunderstanding of federal structure—the Union cannot legislate on State List matters, and therefore cannot enforce compliance on such matters
Recent SC judgments (notably in matters concerning education policy, police administration) have reinforced that Article 256 has limits and cannot become a tool for centralization beyond constitutional bounds.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 4: (c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:
The 10th Schedule provides that disqualification occurs when a member votes or abstains contrary to party direction without prior permission
If the member had obtained prior permission from the party before voting against the whip, they cannot be disqualified
If no prior permission was obtained, the party has 15 days to condone the action (forgive the violation)
If the party does not condone within 15 days, disqualification follows
This creates a mechanism to balance party discipline with member independence
Statement-II is correct:
The 91st Amendment Act (2003) fundamentally amended the anti-defection law
Removed the one-third split clause: Originally, if one-third of a party’s legislators voted to split the party, it was deemed a “merger” and no disqualification occurred
New two-thirds threshold: Now, at least two-thirds of a party’s members must support a merger for it to be recognized as valid
This change was made to prevent easy party splits and increase party stability
Additionally, the amendment barred disqualified defectors from holding ministerial or remunerative political posts until they are re-elected
This question addresses amendments to the anti-defection law that were heavily featured in UPSC 2024-2025 papers, reflecting the contemporary focus on issues affecting parliamentary democracy.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 5: (c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:
Article 163 establishes that the Governor shall be guided by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
However, the Governor does possess certain discretionary powers (as established by SC judgments in Shamsher Singh case and subsequent rulings)
If the Governor acts in gross violation of constitutional norms or arbitrary exercise of discretion, such acts are amenable to judicial review
Courts can examine whether constitutional procedures were followed, especially in sensitive matters like dismissal of governments
Statement-II is correct with context:
The Governor ordinarily requires the advice of the Council of Ministers for summoning, proroguing, or dissolving the Legislative Assembly
However, discretionary powers exist in matters of:
Dismissal of government under Article 356 (President’s Rule) when there is actual breakdown of constitutional machinery
Dissolution of Assembly when no government can be formed (after elections)
Summoning for urgent matters of national importance
The Supreme Court has recognized that absolute surrender of discretion to the Council of Ministers would make the Governor a mere figurehead, necessitating some discretionary space
Recent cases (like those involving Delhi’s L-G and other states) have clarified the limits of gubernatorial discretion, making this a nuanced and frequently examined topic in UPSC papers.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 6: (b) Statement-II only
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect:
Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha), as per Article 109
The definition of Money Bill (Article 110) is specific: bills relating to taxation, government borrowing, appropriation, and related expenditures
The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill; it can only recommend amendments within 14 days (Article 109)
The Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept these recommendations
This exclusive power ensures that revenue and expenditure remain under the elected House’s control
Statement-II is correct:
Ordinary Bills (all bills except Money Bills and Constitutional Amendment Bills) require passage in both Houses
If the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha disagree on an Ordinary Bill, the President can summon a Joint Sitting (Article 108)
In a joint sitting, the combined strength of both Houses votes, and the majority view prevails
This mechanism ensures that the larger Lok Sabha effectively has the final say in legislative disputes
Understanding the distinction between Money Bills and Ordinary Bills is crucial for UPSC—this has appeared multiple times with variations testing whether candidates understand the rationale (democratic accountability for fiscal matters) rather than just the rules.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 7: (c) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:
The 86th Amendment (2002) inserted Article 21A, making education a Fundamental Right
This right is now enforceable through writs under Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article 226 (High Courts)
Citizens can move courts if the State fails to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14
While DPSP principles (like Articles 45-51) outline aspirational goals, they lack direct enforceability
However, courts have increasingly used DPSP as an interpretive tool to read broader rights into Fundamental Rights
Statement-II is correct but requires nuance:
Article 13(2) states that any law inconsistent with Fundamental Rights is void
However, Article 13(4) exempts constitutional amendments from this principle
More importantly, the Supreme Court has held that reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights can be imposed if they serve legitimate state objectives, including those outlined in DPSP
For example, restrictions on freedom of speech to prevent communal violence (reflecting DPSP ideals on secularism) have been upheld
This reflects the Constitution’s design where Fundamental Rights and DPSP are complementary, not contradictory
The relationship between fundamental rights and DPSP has evolved significantly through judicial interpretation—from being seen as contradictory to being viewed as mutually reinforcing. This represents modern UPSC thinking.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 8: (d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect:
While the President has the power to give or withhold assent, this power is not absolute
The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74)
There is constitutional convention (and increasingly, judicial intervention) that assent should not be indefinitely withheld
In practice, if the President delays indefinitely, the government can resign and a new government can advise the President
Recent cases have suggested that courts may intervene if the President acts in manifest violation of constitutional duty
Therefore, the claim that it “cannot be challenged” is outdated constitutional thinking
Statement-II is partially correct but overstated:
Ordinances are indeed extraordinary powers exercised during parliamentary recess or during national emergencies
However, the statement’s claim that ordinances “remain subordinate” understates their power
An ordinance has the same legal force as an Act while it remains in effect (between parliamentary sessions)
If no bill is introduced in the next parliamentary session to replace the ordinance, it lapses automatically after six weeks
But if a bill is introduced and passed, it can transform the ordinance into permanent law
While technically subordinate (can be superseded), ordinances have significant immediate legal effect
Recent Supreme Court judgments have cautioned against excessive reliance on ordinances, treating them as temporary measures, not substitutes for legislation
The UPSC increasingly tests understanding of constitutional conventions and the evolution of presidential powers through judicial pronouncements, not just formal rules.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 9: (d) Neither Statement-I nor Statement-II
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect:
While it is true that the Concurrent List allows legislation by both Parliament and State Legislatures, the conflict resolution is NOT in favor of State law
Article 254 clearly states: Union law prevails when there is a conflict on the Concurrent List
The State law is automatically superseded and becomes void to the extent of the inconsistency with Union law
There is no hierarchy where State law prevails; rather, Union law has constitutional supremacy in case of conflict
This reflects the federal structure’s bias toward union strength for national integration
Statement-II is incorrect and incomplete:
Residuary subjects do belong to the Union (Article 248), which is correct
However, the second part is misleading: States CAN legislate on residuary matters if empowered by a Union Act
Article 252 allows Parliament to pass legislation declaring that it is expedient in the national interest for a State Legislature to legislate on a residuary matter
Additionally, if the President certifies that a matter of residuary nature affects more than one State, Parliament can legislate on it
This flexibility in the Constitution allows for adaptive federalism where the Union can delegate its residuary powers to States
This question tests whether candidates understand that the Seventh Schedule and federalism structure are not absolutely rigid—there are mechanisms for flexibility and cooperative governance built into the Constitution.
ANSWER TO QUESTION 10: (a) Statement-I only
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:
Scheduled Areas are notified by the President under Article 342 and the 5th Schedule
The President acts on the recommendation of the Governor after consulting the State Legislature
The list of Scheduled Areas has been modified multiple times historically (e.g., areas declared scheduled or de-scheduled)
While the process requires the same procedural safeguards for alteration, such modifications have occurred and can occur again if proper procedures are followed
This reflects the dynamic nature of constitutional administration responding to ground realities
Statement-II is incorrect regarding statutory powers:
The 5th Schedule does establish a Tribal Advisory Council in States with Scheduled Areas (Para 8)
The Council includes members representing tribal interests and advises the Governor on matters affecting scheduled tribes
However, it does NOT have statutory powers to approve or reject projects
It is an advisory body whose recommendations are not binding on the executive
The Government/Governor can and often does ignore TAC recommendations in practice
Actual implementation of developmental projects remains the prerogative of the State Government, though increasing judicial scrutiny and constitutional principles like prior informed consent are emerging
This represents a gap between constitutional design (advisory councils) and ground reality (limited tribal participation in decision-making), which has been criticized by rights advocates
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