Daily Static Quiz (Geography) November 20, 2025

Question 1

Consider the following statements about equatorial water bodies and their geographical characteristics:

I. Lake Victoria, unlike Lake Tanganyika, has a significant portion of its surface area intersecting the equatorial line
II. Among African lakes, Lake Victoria has a larger surface area than Lake Tanganyika but lower maximum depth
III. The equatorial alignment of certain African lakes influences their thermal stratification patterns

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) All three

Question 2

Regarding paleomagnetic evidence supporting plate tectonic theory, consider the following:

I. Paleomagnetic data from basaltic rocks reveals “apparent polar wander paths” that diverge between continental landmasses
II. Marine magnetic anomalies on oceanic crust provide direct evidence for seafloor spreading rates and historical plate movements
III. Remnant magnetism in magnetite minerals crystallizes in the exact orientation of Earth’s magnetic field at the time of rock formation

Which statements accurately describe paleomagnetic evidence?

(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) All three

Question 3

Consider the following statements about isotherm behavior and seasonal temperature variations:

I. During Northern Hemisphere winter, isotherms bend equatorward over continental landmasses but remain parallel to latitude lines over oceanic regions
II. This differential behavior occurs because oceanic water masses possess higher thermal capacity and circulate internally, resulting in slower temperature change rates than terrestrial surfaces

Which of the following correctly describes the isotherm-ocean interaction?

(A) Statement-I is correct; Statement-II does not explain this phenomenon adequately
(B) Both statements are correct, but they describe independent phenomena
(C) Statement-I is correct, and Statement-II provides the mechanism explaining it
(D) Both statements are incorrect; ocean temperatures control isotherm behavior

Question 4

Regarding vertical temperature distribution in the troposphere, which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT?

I. The environmental lapse rate averages 6.5°C per 1000 meters throughout the troposphere at all latitudes
II. Temperature inversion layers, where temperature increases with altitude, represent normal tropospheric conditions
III. Tropospheric thickness varies from approximately 8 km at polar regions to 18 km at equatorial regions

(A) I and II only
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) None; all statements are correct

Question 5

Which of the following are correctly paired regarding pyroclastic hazards and their characteristics?

I. Lahars – high-velocity mudflows formed from volcanic ash mixed with glacier meltwater or rainfall
II. Pyroclastic flows – avalanches of ash, rock, and gases traveling at speeds exceeding 100 km/hour with temperatures reaching 1000°C or higher
III. Pyroclastic debris – solid fragments ejected during explosions, categorized by size as ash, lapilli, and volcanic bombs

(A) I and III only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II only
(D) All three

Question 6

Consider the following statements about major ocean currents and their oceanographic properties:

I. The Peru Current (Humboldt Current), flowing northward along South America, transports cold nutrient-rich water creating one of the world’s most productive fishing zones
II. The Benguela Current flows northward along southern Africa’s western coast, associated with an arid coastal climate due to its cold-water characteristics
III. The Canary Current, an eastern boundary current, represents a warm-water phenomenon in the North Atlantic subtropical gyre

Which statements correctly describe ocean current characteristics?

(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) All three

Question 7

Based on recent global agricultural production data, consider the following about cocoa cultivation:

I. Ivory Coast produces approximately 40% of the global cocoa supply, significantly exceeding the combined production of Ghana and Indonesia
II. Ghana, despite being the second-largest producer, has experienced recent production fluctuations due to climatic stress and inadequate precipitation
III. Indonesia produces more cocoa than Nigeria but less than Ecuador globally

Which statements are correct?

(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) All three
(D) I and III only

Question 8

With reference to the Indus River system and water allocation treaties, which of the following tributaries are correctly classified?

I. Sutlej and Beas rivers are allocated to Pakistan under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960)
II. Jhelum and Chenab rivers merge to form Panjnad before joining the Indus mainstream
III. Ravi River, designated as an eastern tributary, flows through Punjab before reaching Panjnad

(A) III only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only

Question 9

Match the following waterfalls with their geographic locations and characteristics:

I. Tugela Falls – South Africa, among the world’s highest complex waterfall systems with seasonal water volume variations
II. Kaieteur Falls – Guyana, single-drop formation on Potaro River with height approximately twice that of Victoria Falls
III. Gocta Cataracts – Peru, representing one of the world’s tallest uninterrupted single-drop waterfalls

(A) I and III only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) All three

Question 10

Consider the following statements regarding the Appalachian Mountains’ geological history:

I. The Alleghanian orogeny, occurring during the Carboniferous Period, resulted from the collision of Pangaean continental masses and fundamentally shaped the region’s structural geology
II. Post-Cenozoic uplift of previously eroded Paleozoic rock formations has created the present-day topography, which explains why Appalachian peaks are lower than western mountain ranges
III. The Appalachian Mountains represent a younger fold-mountain system compared to the Rocky Mountains, as evidenced by their higher degree of rock deformation

(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and III only
(D) None are correct

ANSWER KEY WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS

Question 1: Answer – (A) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Lake Victoria uniquely intersects the equatorial line across its northern section, with the equator passing directly through the lake’s body. Lake Tanganyika lies primarily south of the equator (between approximately 3°S and 8°S latitude), with only its northern tip approaching but not crossing the equatorial line. This distinction makes Lake Victoria singular among Africa’s major lakes in having equatorial intersection.

Statement II – CORRECT: Comparative limnological characteristics:

• Lake Victoria Surface Area: Approximately 68,870 km² (second-largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area)

• Lake Tanganyika Surface Area: Approximately 32,900 km² (sixth-largest freshwater lake)

• Lake Victoria Maximum Depth: 84 meters (relatively shallow for its size)

• Lake Tanganyika Maximum Depth: 1,470 meters (among the world’s deepest freshwater lakes)

Lake Victoria’s larger surface combined with shallower depths contrasts sharply with Tanganyika’s deep rift lake morphology.

Statement III – INCORRECT: While both lakes experience thermal stratification, equatorial alignment does not uniquely influence thermal patterns. Lake Tanganyika, despite being south of the equator, exhibits even more pronounced thermal stratification due to its significant depth and narrow latitudinal extent, creating different thermocline dynamics than Victoria. The statement oversimplifies complex oceanographic factors—depth, area, and water circulation patterns are more deterministic than equatorial position alone.

Key Learning Point: Equatorial geography questions test precise latitudinal positioning combined with limnological knowledge. UPSC often pairs geographic positioning with geomorphological characteristics.

Question 2: Answer – (D) All three

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Paleomagnetic research from the 1950s-1960s revealed “apparent polar wander paths” (APWP):

• Constructed by Keith Runcorn and Edward Irving for Europe and North America

• APWP curves initially appeared divergent between continents

• Reconciliation occurred only if continents occupied same position ~200 million years ago

• This provided first clear geophysical evidence for continental drift revival

Statement II – CORRECT: Marine magnetic anomalies demonstrate:

• Discovered by Morley, Vine, and Matthews (1963)

• Symmetric anomaly patterns on either side of mid-ocean ridges prove seafloor spreading

• Quantifiable spreading rates derived from chronometric reversal sequences

• Provides quantitative evidence for plate motion rates and historical trajectories

Statement III – CORRECT: Remnant magnetism mechanism:

• Magnetite (Fe₃O₄) crystallization from magma aligns with Earth’s field

• Orientation parallels the magnetic dipole configuration at time of solidification

• This “frozen magnetic record” creates paleomagnetic signatures

• Both horizontal and vertical components provide directional and latitudinal paleomagnetic reconstruction

• Applicable to basaltic rocks (high magnetite content) and sedimentary deposits (reoriented magnetite grains post-deposition)

Key Learning Point: Paleomagnetic evidence represents quantitative, testable proof distinguishing it from fossil or rock-matching evidence. UPSC values understanding the mechanisms behind supporting theories.

Question 3: Answer – (C) Statement-I is correct, and Statement-II provides the mechanism explaining it

Explanation:

Statement I – Requires Clarification: The statement needs nuanced interpretation:

• Over continents (winter): Isotherms DO bend equatorward (toward lower latitudes) due to rapid winter cooling

• Over oceans (winter): Isotherms bend poleward (toward higher latitudes), NOT remaining parallel to latitude lines

• The original statement’s second clause is imprecise, but the fundamental phenomenon is correctly identified

Statement II – CORRECT AND MECHANISTIC: The physical mechanism driving isotherm deviation:

• Specific heat capacity of water: ~4.2 J/g°C

• Specific heat capacity of land: ~0.84 J/g°C (5x lower)

• Internal circulation: Oceanic convection distributes heat vertically and laterally, moderating temperature changes

• Thermal inertia: Water loses heat ~5x slower than equivalent land mass

• Result: Winter temperature contrasts create land surface cooling with poleward ocean warmth, producing the observed isotherm pattern

Causal Explanation: Statement-II directly mechanistically explains why Statement-I occurs, making the relationship causally complete.

Key Learning Point: UPSC tests depth of understanding by pairing phenomena with their physical mechanisms. Statement-based questions evaluate whether candidates understand not just “what happens” but “why it happens.”

Question 4: Answer – (A) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: Environmental lapse rate (ELR) shows geographic variation:

• Average ELR: 6.5°C per 1000 meters (or ~1°C per 165 meters)

• Actual range: 5-10°C per 1000 meters depending on local conditions

• Geographic variation: Tropics vs. polar regions show different rates

• Temporal variation: Seasonal and daily fluctuations occur

• The statement’s claim of uniformity at “all latitudes” is factually incorrect

Statement II – INCORRECT: Temperature inversion is abnormal, not normal:

• Definition: Temperature INCREASES with altitude (reversal of normal lapse rate)

• Frequency: Occurs occasionally but is not a standard tropospheric condition

• Duration: Usually transient (hours to days)

• Occurrence: Associated with atmospheric stagnation, nocturnal cooling, or specific weather patterns (high-pressure systems, polar regions, cold-air pools)

• Inversions actually SUPPRESS vertical air movement, contradicting normal tropospheric convection

Statement III – CORRECT: Tropospheric thickness demonstrates latitudinal variation:

• Equatorial regions: 16-18 km average thickness

• Polar regions: 7-9 km thickness

• Mid-latitudes: 10-12 km thickness

• Cause: Equatorial convection pushes tropopause higher; polar weak convection keeps it lower

Key Learning Point: Distinguish between mean values and actual ranges. UPSC questions test precision—statements containing absolute terms (“all,” “always,” “never”) must be evaluated with strict accuracy standards.

Question 5: Answer – (D) All three

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Lahar formation mechanism:

• Definition: Rapidly moving mudflow/debris flow from volcanic material

• Composition: Volcanic ash, rock debris mixed with water

• Water sources:

  • Glacier/snow melt (primary mechanism on ice-capped volcanoes)

  • Intense rainfall during or after eruptions

  • Pre-eruption precipitation mobilized downslope

• Speed: Can exceed 90 km/hour depending on slope and volume

• Historic impact: Most destructive secondary volcanic hazard; responsible for thousands of deaths historically

Statement II – CORRECT: Pyroclastic flow characteristics:

• Composition: Three-phase mixture of hot ash (fine particles <63 micrometers), rock fragments (lapilli and blocks), and superheated volcanic gases

• Temperature: 500-1000°C typically; Mount St. Helens (1980) pyroclastic flows exceeded 1000°C

• Velocity: 30-150 km/hour typically; can exceed 450 km/hour on steep slopes

• Hazard class: Most dangerous volcanic phenomenon; ~90,000 deaths since 1600 AD

• Mechanism: Results from collapsing eruption columns or lateral blast from plug rupture

Statement III – CORRECT: Pyroclastic debris classification by size:

• Ash: <2 mm diameter (finest particles, can be transported globally)

• Lapilli: 2-64 mm diameter (pea to walnut-sized fragments)

• Blocks: >64 mm diameter and angular

• Bombs: >64 mm diameter and rounded (formed during flight through air)

• All classifications: Result from explosive fragmentation during eruption

Integrated Concept: These three phenomena represent the cascade of volcanic hazards—pyroclastic flows represent the primary hazard, while lahars develop as secondary consequence where water is available, and pyroclastic debris encompasses the material spectrum involved.

Key Learning Point: Volcanic hazard questions test knowledge of specific mechanisms, velocity ranges, temperature parameters, and size classifications—all quantifiable, testable details UPSC prioritizes.

Question 6: Answer – (A) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Peru Current (Humboldt Current) characteristics:

• Named after: Alexander von Humboldt (1802 observations)

• Direction: Flows northward along western South American coast (Chile and Peru)

• Water characteristics: Cold current; transports water originating from Antarctic circumpolar circulation

• Nutrient content: High in nutrients (phosphates, nitrates) from upwelling mechanism

• Ecological significance: One of Earth’s most productive fishing zones due to nutrient-driven phytoplankton blooms

• Area: Supports 10-15% of global fish catch despite occupying <1% of ocean area

• Upwelling mechanism: Trade winds drive offshore surface water movement, causing cold deep water to rise

Statement II – CORRECT: Benguela Current attributes:

• Direction: Flows northward along southwestern African coast (Angola, Namibia, South Africa)

• Water type: Cold current carrying sub-Antarctic surface water

• Salinity: Lower than surrounding waters due to mixing patterns

• Climate impact: Cold water reduces evaporation and suppresses convection, creating arid coastal conditions

• Resultant climate: Associated with Namib Desert formation—one of Earth’s oldest deserts

• Mechanism: Eastern boundary current typical of subtropical gyres

• Ecological: Also a major fishing zone due to upwelling and high productivity

Statement III – INCORRECT: Canary Current is a cold current, not warm:

• Definition: Eastern boundary current in North Atlantic subtropical gyre

• Direction: Flows southward along northwestern African coast

• Water type: Cold current transporting water from mid-latitudes toward tropics

• Source: Extension of North Atlantic Drift modified by cooling and southward deflection

• Climate impact: Creates cool, fog-bound coasts (e.g., Canary Islands climate); supports productive fisheries

• Confusion point: Often misidentified because it terminates in tropical latitudes, but the water itself is cold relative to surrounding ocean

Key Learning Point: Ocean currents require precise directional and thermal classification. “Eastern boundary current” is a technical oceanographic term denoting specific circulation dynamics—cold water characterizes most eastern boundaries due to divergent wind-driven coastal upwelling patterns.

Question 7: Answer – (C) All three

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Ivory Coast’s global dominance:

• 2023 production: 2,377,442 tonnes

• Global market share: 42% of worldwide production (increase from 38% in 2022)

• Comparison verification:

  • Ghana: 653,700 tonnes

  • Indonesia: 641,741 tonnes

  • Combined Ghana + Indonesia: 1,295,441 tonnes

  • Ivory Coast alone exceeds combined total: 2,377,442 > 1,295,441 ✓

• Economic significance: Primary export commodity for Ivory Coast economy

Statement II – CORRECT: Ghana’s recent production challenges:

• 2023 production: 653,700 tonnes

• 2024-2025 projection: 5% reduction forecasted

• Climate factors:

  • Warmer-than-normal temperatures

  • Inadequate rainfall patterns

  • These factors triggered reduction in production estimates

• Structural context: Cocoa remains Ghana’s second-largest export (after gold) and crucial to economy

Statement III – CORRECT: Global ranking verification:

• Indonesia: 641,741 tonnes (3rd globally)

• Nigeria: 284,232 tonnes (7th globally)

• Ecuador: 375,719 tonnes (4th globally)

• Ranking order: Indonesia (3rd) > Ecuador (4th) > Nigeria (7th) ✓

Key Learning Point: Agricultural commodity questions require current statistical verification. UPSC tests knowledge of production rankings, which shift with climate events and policy changes. 2023-2025 data shows West Africa’s dominance (Ivory Coast + Ghana + Nigeria = ~71% of global production).

Question 8: Answer – (D) II and III only

Explanation:

Statement I – INCORRECT: Indus Waters Treaty allocation is reversed:

• Treaty signed: September 19, 1960 (by India and Pakistan, with World Bank mediation)

• Eastern Rivers (allocated to INDIA): Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi

• Western Rivers (allocated to PAKISTAN): Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab

• Statement error: Claims Sutlej and Beas go to Pakistan, but they’re Indian-allocated eastern rivers

Statement II – CORRECT: Jhelum-Chenab merger:

• Jhelum River: Originates in Kashmir (Verinag Spring); flows through Kashmir and Punjab

• Chenab River: Major tributary originating in Himachal Pradesh

• Merger location: The two rivers merge to form the united stream

• Subsequent flow: After merging, plus waters from Ravi, they form Panjnad (literally “five waters”)

• Panjnad designation: Represents combined flow of five major tributaries (Sutlej, Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Beas)

• Final junction: Panjnad joins the Indus mainstream at Mithankot in Pakistan

Statement III – CORRECT: Ravi River classification:

• Classification: Left-bank tributary (eastern tributary) of Indus

• Allocation: Allocated to India under Indus Waters Treaty

• Geographic path:

  • Originates in Himachal Pradesh (Chamba district)

  • Flows through Punjab (India and Pakistan)

  • Continues through plains

• Merger point: Joins the Sutlej (which had already merged with Beas) before forming Panjnad

• Course characteristic: Forms part of India-Pakistan border in certain sections

Treaty Context: The Indus Waters Treaty represents one of Asia’s most successful transboundary water-sharing agreements, predating most modern water treaties. It assigns consumptive rights while allowing non-consumptive and hydroelectric uses.

Key Learning Point: River system questions require precise understanding of tributary classification (left/right bank), water allocation mechanisms, and merger sequences. UPSC values knowledge of bilateral water treaties given India’s transboundary river complexities.

Question 9: Answer – (B) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Tugela Falls characteristics:

• Location: KwaZulu-Natal Province, South Africa (within Royal Natal National Park, Drakensberg region)

• Classification: Complex waterfall system (multiple cascading stages, not single drop)

• Height: 948 meters (3,110 feet) – among world’s highest

• Water volume: Highly seasonal; significant flow during rainy season, minimal during dry periods

• Composition: Series of cataracts and drops that collectively form the complex system

• Geographic context: Drakensberg Mountains escarpment location

Statement II – CORRECT: Kaieteur Falls attributes:

• Location: Guyana (South America), specifically Kaieteur National Park

• River: Potaro River (tributary of Essequibo River system)

• Type: Single-drop (uninterrupted drop without intermediate steps)

• Height: 226 meters (741 feet)

• Victoria Falls comparison: ~108 meters height; Kaieteur is approximately 2.1x higher than Victoria ✓

• Niagara Falls comparison: ~50 meters height; Kaieteur is ~4.5x higher than Niagara Falls

• Water volume: 663 cubic meters per second average flow

• Ecological context: Surrounded by pristine Guyana rainforest; habitat for rare species (giant otters, harpy eagles)

Statement III – INCORRECT: Gocta Cataracts geographic error:

• Actual location: Amazonas Region, PERU (not independently significant as “one of world’s tallest single-drop”)

• Height: 771 meters (2,530 feet)

• Classification: Recently verified (2006) as one of world’s highest, but height ranking places it BELOW Tugela (948m) and other South American falls

• Statement error: The characterization of Gocta as one of the “world’s tallest uninterrupted single-drop waterfalls” is problematic because:

  1. Several Peruvian waterfalls exceed it in height (Tres Hermanas at 914m, Yumbilla at 896m)

  2. Angel Falls (979m, Venezuela) is higher and more recognized

  3. The statement lacks precision in global ranking

Waterfall Height Hierarchy (verified):

1. Angel Falls (Venezuela): 979m

2. Tugela Falls (South Africa): 948m

3. Tres Hermanas (Peru): 914m

4. Yumbilla (Peru): 896m

5. Gocta Cataracts (Peru): 771m

Key Learning Point: Waterfall questions test precision in global geographic rankings. UPSC expects knowledge of top 5-10 waterfalls, their exact countries, rivers, and precise height comparisons. Single-drop vs. complex classification is critical.

Question 10: Answer – (A) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I – CORRECT: Alleghanian orogeny geological sequence:

• Timing: Carboniferous through early Permian (approximately 323-290 million years ago)

• Tectonic mechanism: Collision between Laurasia (North America-Europe) and Gondwana (including Africa) during Pangaean supercontinent assembly

• Structural consequences:

  • Massive crustal shortening and thickening

  • Intense folding and faulting

  • Metamorphic rock development

  • Established fundamental basement-level structures still visible today

• Regional impact: Created a major mountain belt at continental collision zone

• Rock types: Metamorphosed sediments and older Precambrian basement rocks

Statement II – CORRECT: Post-Cenozoic topographic history:

• Paleozoic history: Appalachian Mountains were built during multiple orogenies (Taconic, Acadian, Alleghanian)

• Mesozoic erosion: Extensive Mesozoic and Tertiary erosion significantly reduced mountain elevation

• Cenozoic rejuvenation:

  • Beginning in Miocene (~23 million years ago), renewed uplift occurred

  • This uplift raised previously eroded Paleozoic metamorphic and sedimentary rocks

  • Created current topography: relatively modest elevations (Mount Mitchell: 2,037m)

• Comparison with western ranges:

  • Rocky Mountains: 4,401m (Mount Elbert)

  • Sierra Nevada: 4,421m (Mount Whitney)

  • Cascade Range: 4,392m (Mount Rainier)

  • Appalachians are demonstrably lower, explained by Cenozoic uplift of pre-eroded Paleozoic rocks

Statement III – INCORRECT: Age and deformation relationship is reversed:

• Appalachian Mountains: Among Earth’s OLDEST mountain systems

  • Primarily Paleozoic age (541-252 million years ago)

  • Alleghanian orogeny: Carboniferous-Permian (323-290 mya)

• Rocky Mountains: YOUNGER mountain system

  • Primarily Cenozoic age (66 million years ago onwards)

  • Laramide Orogeny: Late Cretaceous-early Tertiary (~85-55 mya)

• Deformation relationship: OLDER mountain systems typically show LESS deformation than younger systems

  • Appalachians: Heavily eroded; folded and faulted but now low-relief

  • Rockies: Recently uplifted; sharper peaks; less erosion time

• Fundamental geology error: The statement reverses both age relationships and expected deformation patterns

Geological Timeline:

• Appalachian belt: Primarily Paleozoic (541-252 mya) with Cenozoic rejuvenation

• Rocky Mountain belt: Primarily Cenozoic (85-55 mya onwards) with ongoing uplift

Key Learning Point: Mountain system questions require understanding temporal sequences (when formed), erosion history, and tectonic rejuvenation. UPSC tests whether candidates understand that older mountains have different topographic expressions than younger mountains due to differential erosion. The Appalachian-Rocky Mountain comparison is a classic UPSC comparison topic.

Daily Static Quiz