Daily Static Quiz (Environment) Dec

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu are correct?

1. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of Ramsar sites among all Indian states
2. Kazhuveli and Nanjarayan were designated as Ramsar sites in 2024
3. Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu lie exclusively on the Eastern Ghats biogeographic region
4. Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve is one of the Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Question 2

Consider the following statements about Lichens:

1. Lichens are symbiotic associations comprising fungi, algae, and/or cyanobacteria
2. The algal component in lichen obtains protection and moisture from the fungal filaments
3. Lichens can only survive in symbiotic form and cannot exist independently in nature
4. Lichens are bioindicators and pioneers of primary ecological succession on bare rock

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 3

Regarding rhinoceros species distribution across the world, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Javan rhinoceros has a single horn and is restricted to Indonesia’s Java island
2. Sumatran rhinos are the smallest rhinoceros species and possess two horns
3. Indian rhinoceros historically inhabited the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra basins
4. The Javan rhinoceros population is more viable than the Sumatran rhinoceros population

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 4

Consider the following statements about Elephant Reserves in India:

1. There are 33 notified Elephant Reserves distributed across 14 states
2. These reserves collectively cover approximately 80,000 square kilometers
3. Karnataka, Assam, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu host the largest elephant populations
4. Elephant Reserves are primarily designed for habitat protection without any focus on human-elephant conflict mitigation

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Question 5

Which of the following is the primary reason for significant methane (CH₄) release from paddy fields?

(a) High nitrate concentration in soil promoting nitrification
(b) Anaerobic decomposition of organic matter by methanogenic bacteria in waterlogged conditions
(c) Direct bacterial photosynthesis in flooded rice paddies
(d) Excess application of phosphate fertilizers

Question 6

India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) includes which of the following key pillars?

1. Low-carbon electricity systems consistent with development
2. Integrated and efficient low-carbon transport systems
3. Elimination of all hydroelectric power generation within 10 years
4. Enhancing forest cover consistent with socioeconomic and ecological considerations
5. CO₂ removal and related engineering solutions

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Question 7

Consider the following statements about Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment):

1. Mission LiFE was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021
2. The mission aims to mobilise at least one billion people globally to adopt environmentally sustainable lifestyles
3. By 2028, at least 50% of all villages and urban local bodies in India are expected to be environmentally friendly
4. Mission LiFE promotes “mindful and deliberate utilisation” instead of “mindless and destructive consumption”

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8

The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) is a supplementary agreement to which international convention?

(a) Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
(c) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
(d) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Question 9

Which of the following statements about CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) Appendices are correct?

1. Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction; trade is prohibited except in exceptional non-commercial cases
2. Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened but whose trade must be controlled
3. Appendix III comprises species protected in at least one country requesting CITES assistance
4. Appendix I species require both import and export permits for any international trade

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Question 10

Consider the following statements about Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS):

1. GIAHS programme is led by the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
2. Kuttanad in Kerala is recognized as a GIAHS site for its below-sea-level farming system
3. Pampore region of Jammu & Kashmir is designated as a GIAHS site for traditional saffron cultivation
4. The GIAHS designation ensures complete prohibition of any modern agricultural practices in designated areas

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS

Question 1 – Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): Tamil Nadu indeed has the highest number of Ramsar sites among all Indian states. With the recent designation of Kazhuveli and Nanjarayan in August 2024, Tamil Nadu’s total reached 18-20 Ramsar sites (sources vary slightly on the exact count, but Tamil Nadu consistently leads).

Statement 2 (Correct): Kazhuveli and Nanjarayan were officially recognized as Ramsar sites on 15 August 2024 (Independence Day). These two sanctuaries, with a combined area of 5,277 hectares, lie in the Central Asian Flyway and serve as vital breeding and foraging grounds for waterbird species.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu are not exclusively located on the Eastern Ghats. Many Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu, including the Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve and various coastal wetlands, are situated in coastal plains and marine ecosystems, not exclusively on the Eastern Ghats biogeographic region.

Statement 4 (Correct): The Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve is indeed one of the Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu. It is an important wetland supporting diverse aquatic fauna and flora, and approximately 35 species of fish play a crucial role in the food chain, along with about 150 species of local and migratory birds.

Question 2 – Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): Lichens are indeed symbiotic associations of fungi with algae (usually green) or cyanobacteria. This is a well-established biological fact tested in previous UPSC examinations.

Statement 2 (Correct): The fungal component of lichen protects the algae or cyanobacteria from harsh environmental conditions, gathers moisture and nutrients, and typically provides an anchor. The fungal filaments create an external protective layer for the photosynthetic partner.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): While lichens are found primarily in their symbiotic form, all known algae and cyanobacteria that partner with fungi are believed to survive independently as well. Currently, no algae or cyanobacteria species are known to exist exclusively as part of a lichen symbiosis. The symbiotic relationship benefits both partners, but they are not obligately dependent in the sense that they cannot exist separately.

Statement 4 (Correct): Lichens are pioneer organisms and bioindicators. They are famous for initiating primary ecological succession even on bare rock surfaces because their symbiotic structure allows them to colonize harsh, nutrient-poor environments where other organisms cannot survive. Their presence or absence also indicates air quality.

Question 3 – Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): The Javan rhinoceros indeed possesses a single horn and is currently restricted to the tropical forests of Indonesia’s Java island. It is the rarest of all living rhinoceros species, with only one known wild population remaining.

Statement 2 (Correct): Sumatran rhinos are the smallest species of rhinoceros and are the only Asian rhinos with two horns. They are found in the dense tropical and subtropical forests of Borneo and Sumatra. Their population is critically endangered, with fewer than 80 individuals remaining in the wild.

Statement 3 (Correct): Fossil evidence and historical records confirm that Indian rhinoceros (greater one-horned rhino) historically inhabited the Indo-Gangetic Plain, including the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra river basins. Their historical range extended from Pakistan to the Indian-Myanmar border.

Statement 4 (Incorrect): This is misleading and factually debatable. The Javan rhino population is extremely small (estimated at fewer than 75 individuals in Java). The Sumatran rhino population is also critically endangered (fewer than 80 in the wild), though a successful captive breeding program exists with 11 animals. Both species face similar existential threats; neither is clearly “more viable” than the other.

Question 4 – Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): As per recent official data (2017-2018 census), there are 33 notified Elephant Reserves in India. These reserves were established under Project Elephant, initiated in 1992.

Statement 2 (Correct): These 33 Elephant Reserves collectively cover approximately 80,000-80,778 square kilometers of diverse forest ecosystems across the Indian subcontinent, protecting crucial elephant habitats and migration corridors.

Statement 3 (Correct): According to the 2017-2018 elephant census, Karnataka, Assam, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu host the largest populations of Asian elephants in India, with India harboring the largest number of wild Asian elephants globally.

Statement 4 (Incorrect): Elephant Reserves are multifunctional protected areas designed not only for habitat protection and species conservation but also explicitly for mitigating human-elephant conflict, which is a significant concern in many states where wild elephants and human settlements coexist. Project Elephant’s mandate includes conflict mitigation.

Question 5 – Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Methane release from paddy fields is primarily caused by the anaerobic (oxygen-free) decomposition of organic matter in waterlogged conditions. When rice paddies are flooded for cultivation, the submerged soil becomes devoid of oxygen. Under these anaerobic conditions, methanogenic bacteria thrive and decompose organic carbon compounds, producing methane as a byproduct.

Why other options are incorrect:

(a) Nitrate concentration promotes nitrification (an aerobic process producing nitrogen oxides, not methane)
(c) Bacteria cannot photosynthesize; photosynthesis is the function of algae and cyanobacteria
(d) Phosphate fertilizers do not directly cause methane production; they may promote algal growth, but the primary driver is the anaerobic condition itself

Question 6 – Answer: (b)

Explanation:

India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS), submitted to UNFCCC at COP27, is built on seven key pillars:

Statement 1 (Correct): Low-carbon electricity systems consistent with development is explicitly mentioned as a pillar.

Statement 2 (Correct): Integrated, efficient, and inclusive low-carbon transport systems is a core pillar, including measures like increased electrification and green hydrogen fuel.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): The LT-LEDS does NOT advocate elimination of hydroelectric power. In fact, renewable energy expansion (including hydro) is supported. The strategy seeks a just and smooth transition from fossil fuels, not an elimination of all non-fossil energy types.

Statement 4 (Correct): Enhancing forest cover consistent with socioeconomic and ecological considerations is an explicit pillar of the strategy.

Statement 5 (Correct): CO₂ removal and related engineering solutions (including carbon capture and storage technologies) is listed as one of the seven pillars.

Question 7 – Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): Prime Minister Narendra Modi introduced the concept of LiFE (Lifestyle for the Environment) at COP26 in Glasgow on 1 November 2021, calling for a global paradigm shift.

Statement 2 (Correct): The mission explicitly aims to mobilize at least one billion Indians and other global people to take individual and collective action to safeguard and conserve the environment between 2022 and 2028.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): The target is more ambitious—at least 80% of all villages and urban local bodies in India are expected to be environmentally friendly by 2028, not 50%.

Statement 4 (Correct): The core philosophy of Mission LiFE is the promotion of “mindful and deliberate utilisation, instead of mindless and destructive consumption,” which directly addresses unsustainable consumption patterns.

Question 8 – Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), adopted in 2010 and entered into force on 12 October 2014.

The Nagoya Protocol specifically addresses the third objective of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. It provides a legal framework for access to genetic resources and benefit-sharing (ABS), requiring countries to establish access procedures and ensure that benefits from genetic resource utilization are shared fairly.

Why other options are incorrect:

(a) Ramsar Convention focuses on wetland conservation, not benefit-sharing of genetic resources
(c) CITES regulates international trade in endangered species, not benefit-sharing of genetic resources
(d) UNFCCC addresses climate change, not genetic resource benefit-sharing

Question 9 – Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of Appendix I species is prohibited with specific exceptions: international trade is only authorized in exceptional circumstances (Article III), primarily for non-commercial purposes such as scientific research. Even in these exceptional cases, both an import permit and an export permit (or re-export certificate) are mandatory.

Statement 2 (Correct): Appendix II lists species that are not necessarily currently threatened with extinction but in which trade must be controlled in order to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival. These species can be traded internationally under regulated conditions.

Statement 3 (Correct): Appendix III comprises species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling international trade in those species.

Statement 4 (Correct): For Appendix I species, even though trade is generally prohibited, when trade is authorized in exceptional non-commercial cases (as per Article III), both an import permit AND an export permit (or re-export certificate) are legally required.

Question 10 – Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) officially leads the GIAHS programme. As of November 2023, 86 sites across 26 countries have been designated as GIAHS.

Statement 2 (Correct): Kuttanad in Kerala was designated as a GIAHS site in 2013. It represents the unique “below-sea-level farming system”—the only such system in India—where rice is cultivated below sea level in lands created by draining delta swamps in brackish waters. The agricultural landscape is a mosaic of wetlands (for paddy and fishing), garden lands (for coconut and tubers), and water areas (for inland fishing).

Statement 3 (Correct): The Pampore region of Jammu & Kashmir was designated as a GIAHS site in 2011 for its traditional saffron heritage cultivation system. The system is typical of Pampore Karewas, where saffron cultivation is associated with Kashmiri cuisine, traditional medicines, and cultural heritage. Rice is the primary staple crop, with maize, millets, pulses, wheat, barley, and temperate fruits also grown.

Statement 4 (Incorrect): GIAHS designation does not ensure or require complete prohibition of modern agricultural practices. Instead, GIAHS sites are recognized for their dynamic, locally-adapted agricultural systems that combine traditional knowledge with sustainable practices. The designation aims to protect and promote these heritage systems while allowing for their evolution, not to freeze them in time or prohibit all modern methods. The FAO itself recognizes GIAHS as “dynamic systems” that balance tradition with adaptation.

Daily Static Quiz