Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 18, 2025

Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 18, 2025

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the administration of certain areas in India:

1. The President has the authority to declare an area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule after consulting the concerned State’s Governor.
2. The Tribes Advisory Council has executive powers to enforce recommendations regarding tribal welfare in Scheduled Areas.
3. Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule have more decision-making powers than Tribes Advisory Councils under the Fifth Schedule.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the tribunals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Article 323A empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish administrative tribunals.
2. Under Article 323B, a hierarchy of tribunals may be established for matters such as land reforms and taxation.
3. Tribunals established under Article 323A can adjudicate on the constitutional validity of their parent statutes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Which of the following best describes the concept of ‘Positive Liberty’ as distinguished from ‘Negative Liberty’?

(a) Positive Liberty refers to freedom from external constraints, while Negative Liberty involves the capacity for self-determination and democratic participation.

(b) Positive Liberty emphasizes the expansion of self-determined activity including freedom from internal restraints, while Negative Liberty focuses on protecting certain areas where an individual is free from external interference.

(c) Positive Liberty guarantees fundamental rights against state action, while Negative Liberty allows the state to intervene for social welfare.

(d) Both forms of liberty are identical in their approach to individual freedom and differ only in their application.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding federalism in the Indian Constitution:

1. The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers into Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
2. On subjects in the Concurrent List, if there is a conflict between Union and State laws, the State law prevails.
3. Under certain conditions specified in the Constitution, Parliament can legislate on subjects mentioned in the State List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. With reference to the concept of sovereignty in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The Preamble declares India as a sovereign republic, emphasizing the ultimate sovereignty of the people.
2. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States,’ implying that states have the right to secede from the Union.
3. Only the Indian Parliament has the power to legislate on foreign affairs, reflecting India’s external sovereignty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Consider the following statements about the disqualification of members under the Anti-Defection Law:

1. A nominated member of a House will be disqualified if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date of taking his seat.
2. If an independently elected member joins any political party after election, he becomes liable for disqualification.
3. Under the law, a merger of a political party requires the consent of at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to the Finance Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The Finance Commission must be constituted by the President every five years or at an earlier time as the President considers necessary.
2. It recommends the principles governing grants-in-aid to the states from the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Commission consists of a Chairman and three other members appointed by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes:

1. The Commission is established under Article 338 of the Constitution.
2. It has the power to summon and enforce the attendance of any person from any part of India while investigating complaints.
3. The Union Government is not constitutionally mandated to consult the Commission on major policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to Parliamentary Forums in India, consider the following statements about Consultative Committees:

1. Consultative Committees are statutory bodies established under the Rules of Procedure of Parliament.
2. A Member of Parliament can be nominated to only one Consultative Committee.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament to these committees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers:

1. According to Article 75, the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, and other Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. Ministers can be appointed only from among the members of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

Answer 1: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Under Paragraph 6 of the Fifth Schedule, the President has the authority to declare any area as a Scheduled Area by order, usually after consulting the relevant State’s Governor. The criteria recommended by the Dhebar Commission include preponderance of tribal population, compactness of area, under-developed nature, and marked economic disparity.​

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Tribes Advisory Council (TAC), established under the Fifth Schedule, has only advisory functions. Its duty is to advise the Governor on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes in the State. Unlike Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule, TACs do not have executive or enforcement powers.​

Statement 3 is correct. Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) under the Sixth Schedule, applicable in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, have significantly more powers than TACs. ADCs have legislative, judicial, and executive powers, including the ability to make laws on specified matters and collect certain taxes. In contrast, TACs under the Fifth Schedule can only provide advice without enforcement authority.​

Answer 2: (a) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 323A empowers only the Parliament (not State Legislatures) to establish administrative tribunals for adjudication of disputes related to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. These tribunals can be established both at the central and state level, but the power to create them rests exclusively with Parliament.​

Statement 2 is correct. Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for matters such as taxation, land reforms, industrial and labour disputes, elections, rent and tenancy, and other specified subjects. Under Article 323B, a hierarchy of tribunals may be established, unlike Article 323A which provides for only one tribunal at the centre and one for each state.​

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court ruled in the Chandra Kumar Case (1997) that tribunals may decide questions on constitutional validity of statutory provisions, but they cannot adjudicate on the constitutionality of their parent statutes (the acts under which they were created). Such matters must be adjudicated directly by High Courts. This ensures that tribunals do not exceed their jurisdiction and that checks and balances are maintained.​

Answer 3: (b) Positive Liberty emphasizes the expansion of self-determined activity including freedom from internal restraints, while Negative Liberty focuses on protecting certain areas where an individual is free from external interference.

Explanation:

Negative Liberty refers to the absence of external constraints or interference in an individual’s actions—essentially freedom from coercion by others. Proponents of negative liberty aim to safeguard certain areas where individuals are free to do as they desire without external restraint.​

Positive Liberty goes beyond mere absence of external constraints. It emphasizes the capacity for self-determination and the expansion of self-determined activity. According to Rousseau and other positive liberty theorists, true liberty requires not just freedom from external interference, but also freedom from internal restraints (like ignorance, addiction, or prejudice) and the ability to participate in democratic decision-making. Positive liberty proponents argue that individuals should have a say in creating the rules that govern their lives, which is why democratic procedures are seen as essential to expanding the sphere of self-determined activity.​

Options (a), (c), and (d) incorrectly characterize or conflate the two concepts. The key distinction lies in negative liberty being about “freedom from” (external constraints) and positive liberty being about “freedom to” (self-realization and democratic participation).​

Answer 4: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides legislative powers between the Union and States through three lists: the Union List (List I) containing subjects on which only Parliament can legislate, the State List (List II) containing subjects on which only State Legislatures can legislate, and the Concurrent List (List III) containing subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate.​

Statement 2 is incorrect. On subjects in the Concurrent List, if there is a conflict between a Union law and a State law, the Union law prevails. This reflects the supremacy of Parliamentary legislation over State legislation in areas of concurrent jurisdiction. Article 254 of the Constitution specifically addresses this issue.​

Statement 3 is correct. Under certain conditions specified in the Constitution, Parliament can legislate on subjects mentioned in the State List. For example, Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that it is necessary in the national interest. Article 250 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during a national emergency. Article 252 permits Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if two or more states request such legislation.​

Answer 5: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India as a “sovereign” republic, emphasizing that sovereignty ultimately rests with the people of India. The placement of “sovereignty” at the beginning of the Preamble highlights its importance as the first among the core principles of the republic. This sovereign status means India has complete independence in its internal and external affairs, not subject to any foreign authority.​

Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a “Union of States,” which specifically implies that Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement by the states and that states have no right to secede from the Union. This ensures the indivisible nature of Indian sovereignty and territorial integrity. Unlike a true federation where states retain the theoretical right to secede, the Indian Constitution deliberately uses “Union of States” to emphasize the permanent and indestructible nature of the Indian Union.​

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution grants the Indian Parliament exclusive powers to legislate on matters concerning foreign affairs, including international treaties, declaration of war or peace, and regulation of foreign trade. This is reflected in entries in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule and embodies India’s external sovereignty—the ability to conduct international relations independently without external interference.​

Answer 6: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), a nominated member of Parliament or State Legislature will be disqualified if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat. This provision allows nominated members a six-month period to decide whether to join a political party, after which joining any party would result in disqualification.​

Statement 2 is correct. An independently elected member becomes liable for disqualification under the anti-defection law if he joins any political party after his election. This provision is designed to maintain the independence that voters expected when they elected the candidate without party affiliation.​

Statement 3 is correct. Paragraph 4 of the Tenth Schedule provides an exception for mergers of political parties. A merger is deemed to have taken place when an original political party merges with another political party, and at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger. In such cases, neither the members who agree to the merger nor those who decide to remain with the original party will face disqualification.​

Answer 7: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 280(1) of the Constitution mandates that the President shall constitute a Finance Commission within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary. This ensures regular periodic review of financial relations between the Union and States.​

Statement 2 is correct. Article 280(3) specifies the duties of the Finance Commission, which include making recommendations to the President regarding: (a) distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States; (b) the principles which should govern grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India; (c) measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement resources of Panchayats and Municipalities; and (d) any other matter referred by the President in the interests of sound finance.​

Statement 3 is incorrect. According to Article 280(1), the Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members (not three), all appointed by the President. The qualifications and manner of selection of members may be determined by Parliament through law.​

Answer 8: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is established under Article 338 of the Constitution. Originally, Article 338 provided for a Special Officer for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but it was subsequently amended to establish a dedicated Commission with a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three other members appointed by the President.​

Statement 2 is correct. Article 338(8) grants the Commission extensive powers while investigating matters or inquiring into complaints. These powers are equivalent to those of a civil court trying a suit, including: (a) summoning and enforcing attendance of any person from any part of India and examining them on oath; (b) requiring discovery and production of documents; (c) receiving evidence on affidavits; (d) requisitioning public records from any court or office; (e) issuing commissions for examination of witnesses and documents.​

Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 338(9) explicitly mandates that “The Union and every State Government shall consult the Commission on all major policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes.” This constitutional requirement ensures that the Commission has a meaningful role in policy formulation and that the interests of Scheduled Castes are considered in major policy decisions at both Union and State levels.​

Answer 9: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Consultative Committees are not statutory bodies established under the Rules of Procedure of Parliament. They are informal bodies constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. The concept was first proposed by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in 1954, and detailed guidelines for their constitution and functioning were established in 1969. These committees are not part of the formal parliamentary committee system and do not have statutory backing.​

Statement 2 is correct. The membership of Consultative Committees is voluntary and left to the choice of Members and Leaders of their parties/groups in the respective Houses. However, a Member of Parliament can be nominated to only one Consultative Committee at a time. This ensures that members can participate meaningfully without overextension.​

Statement 3 is correct. Members of Parliament belonging to both Houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) are nominated to these committees by the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs is responsible for constituting these committees and arranging their meetings. Each committee typically has a minimum membership of 10 and a maximum of 30 (or 40 in some sources), and they are attached to various Ministries/Departments of the Central Government.​

Answer 10: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Article 75(1A), inserted by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, specifies that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This provision was introduced to limit the size of the Council of Ministers and prevent excessive expansion.​

Statement 2 is correct. Article 75(1) clearly states that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President, and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. While the President formally makes these appointments, in practice, the Prime Minister has the discretion to select ministers and allocate portfolios, with the President acting on this advice in accordance with parliamentary conventions.​

Statement 3 is incorrect. Ministers can be appointed from either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. According to Article 75(5), a Minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament at the time of appointment must become a member of either House within six months, failing which he ceases to be a Minister. This provision allows for flexibility in ministerial appointments while ensuring ultimate accountability to Parliament.

Daily Static Quiz