Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 25, 2025
Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 25, 2025
Q.1 Consider the following statements:
It introduced the concept of separate electorates for the first time in India.
It enlarged the size of legislative councils but members were elected indirectly.
Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council under this Act.
Which of the following Acts is being described in the above statements?
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
Q.2 With reference to the Government of India Act of 1919, consider the following statements:
Dyarchy was introduced at both the central and provincial levels.
The subjects under the provincial government were divided into reserved and transferred lists.
It established a bicameral legislature at the centre consisting of the Legislative Assembly and the Council of State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.3 Consider the following features:
Division of powers between the centre and provinces into three lists – Federal, Provincial and Concurrent
Establishment of Federal Court for the first time
Introduction of provincial autonomy by abolishing dyarchy at the provincial level
Establishment of Reserve Bank of India
Which of the above features are associated with the Government of India Act of 1935?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.4 With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements:
It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
It granted exclusive legislative powers to the Governor-General in Council for the whole of British India.
It introduced the principle of merit-based selection for the Indian Civil Services, which was fully implemented immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.5 Consider the following statements about Indian Federalism:
The word ‘federation’ is explicitly mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution.
Residuary powers under the Indian Constitution are vested with the Union Government.
In case of a conflict between Central and State laws on a concurrent subject, the Central law prevails.
The states in India do not have the right to territorial integrity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.6 Consider the following recommendations:
Abolition of Article 356 of the Constitution
Abolition of All India Services like IAS, IPS and IFS
Transfer of residuary powers to the States
Establishment of the Inter-State Council as a permanent body
Which of the above were among the recommendations of the Rajamannar Committee?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.7 Under which of the following circumstances can the Parliament make laws on subjects enumerated in the State List?
If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a simple majority that it is necessary in the national interest
During a Proclamation of National Emergency
If the legislatures of two or more States pass a resolution requesting Parliament to legislate on a State subject
For implementing any international treaty, agreement or convention
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.8 With reference to the proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, consider the following statements:
Prior to the 44th Amendment, ‘internal disturbance’ was one of the grounds for declaring a National Emergency.
After the 44th Amendment, the proclamation of Emergency must be approved by the Parliament within one month.
Article 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
The President can proclaim different emergencies on different grounds simultaneously.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.9 With reference to Article 371 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
Article 371-A makes special provisions for Nagaland, including that Acts of Parliament relating to religious or social practices of the Nagas shall not apply unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides.
Article 371-D makes special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana regarding equitable opportunities in public employment and education.
Article 371-J provides for a separate development board for Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.10 Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
The Chairperson of the NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
The term of office of the Chairperson and members is five years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
The NHRC has the powers of a Civil Court in the conduct of its proceedings.
The recommendations of the NHRC are binding on the concerned government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
Q.1 Answer: (c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, introduced several important provisions:
Statement 1 is correct: The Act introduced separate electorates for Muslims for the first time, allowing them to elect their representatives separately. This was a significant and controversial feature that deepened communal divisions in Indian politics.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act considerably enlarged the size of the legislative councils at both Central and provincial levels. The Central Legislative Council was expanded from 16 to 60 members. However, the elected members were chosen through an indirect election system where local bodies elected an electoral college, which elected members of provincial legislatures, who then elected members of the central legislature.
Statement 3 is correct: The Act provided for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors for the first time. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council as a law member.
Q.2 Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, brought significant constitutional changes:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dyarchy (dual governance) was introduced only at the provincial level, not at the central level. At the centre, the Governor-General remained the chief executive authority with concentrated powers.
Statement 2 is correct: At the provincial level, subjects were divided into two lists – Reserved (law and order, irrigation, finance, land revenue, etc., under the Governor) and Transferred (education, local government, health, excise, industry, public works, etc., under Indian ministers).
Statement 3 is correct: The Act introduced a bicameral legislature at the centre consisting of the Legislative Assembly (forerunner of Lok Sabha) and the Council of State (forerunner of Rajya Sabha).
Q.3 Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
The Government of India Act of 1935 was the longest Act enacted by the British Parliament with 321 sections and 10 schedules. All the features mentioned are associated with this Act:
Feature 1 is correct: The Act divided powers between the central government and provinces into three lists – Federal List, Provincial List and Concurrent List.
Feature 2 is correct: The Act provided for the establishment of a Federal Court for the first time to interpret provisions of the Act and adjudicate disputes between provinces and the federation.
Feature 3 is correct: The Act introduced provincial autonomy by abolishing dyarchy at the provincial level. Provinces were granted substantial autonomy to govern themselves in most areas.
Feature 4 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India was established under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935.
Q.4 Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Charter Act of 1833, also known as the Government of India Act 1833 or Saint Helena Act 1833, was a significant reform in the governance of British India:
Statement 1 is correct: The Act redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India in 1833.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act centralized legislative powers and granted the Governor-General in Council exclusive legislative powers for the whole of British India. The Governors of Bombay and Madras were deprived of their legislative powers.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Act did introduce the principle of merit-based selection for civil services, this provision was not fully implemented at that time due to opposition from the Court of Directors who continued to hold the privilege of appointing company officials.
Q.5 Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
India’s federal structure has certain unique characteristics that distinguish it from classical federations:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘federation‘ is not mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 248, the residuary powers (subjects not enumerated in any of the three lists) are vested with the Union/Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: In case of any conflict between Central law and State law on a Concurrent List subject, the Central law prevails and the State law becomes void to the extent of the repugnancy.
Statement 4 is correct: States in India do not have the right to territorial integrity. Parliament can change the boundaries of states by its unilateral action with a simple majority, as provided under Article 3.
Q.6 Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
The Rajamannar Committee was appointed by the Tamil Nadu Government to examine Centre-State relations. Its recommendations were considered quite radical:
Recommendation 1 is correct: One of the most radical recommendations was the proposal to completely abolish Article 356 (President’s Rule) to protect state autonomy from central interference.
Recommendation 2 is correct: The Committee recommended abolition of All India Services like IAS, IPS and IFS.
Recommendation 3 is correct: The Committee recommended that residuary powers should be granted to the States.
Recommendation 4 is correct: The Committee recommended the immediate establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263.
Note: This is different from the Sarkaria Commission which recommended that Article 356 should be used sparingly (not abolished) and that All India Services should be strengthened (not abolished).
Q.7 Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
The Constitution provides for extraordinary circumstances under which Parliament can legislate on State subjects:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary in the national interest, Parliament can legislate on State subjects. However, this resolution requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, not a simple majority.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 250, Parliament has the power to make laws on any matter in the State List during the operation of a Proclamation of National Emergency. Such laws remain in force for six months after the emergency ceases.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 252, if the legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate on any subject in the State List, Parliament may do so. Such laws apply only to those States which have passed the resolution.
Statement 4 is correct: Under Article 253, Parliament has the power to make laws on any subject (including State List subjects) for implementing any international treaty, agreement or convention.
Q.8 Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Article 352 dealing with National Emergency underwent significant changes through constitutional amendments:
Statement 1 is correct: Prior to the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, the grounds for declaring National Emergency included war, external aggression, or ‘internal disturbance’. The 44th Amendment replaced ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ as it was considered too vague and prone to misuse.
Statement 2 is correct: The 44th Amendment reduced the duration within which the proclamation of Emergency must be approved by Parliament from 2 months to 1 month.
Statement 3 is correct: The 44th Amendment provided that Articles 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Statement 4 is correct: The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 added that the President can declare different proclamations of National Emergency on different grounds simultaneously.
Q.9 Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the Constitution contain special provisions for twelve states:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 371-A makes special provisions for Nagaland. It provides that Acts of Parliament relating to religious or social practices of the Nagas, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice, and ownership and transfer of land shall not apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 371-D makes special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (extended to Telangana by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014). The President is empowered to provide for equitable opportunities and facilities for people belonging to different parts of the state in matters of public employment and education.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 371-J provides for the establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region, making provision for equitable allocation of funds and reservation in educational institutions and government posts for persons belonging to that region.
Q.10 Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:
Statement 1 is correct: As per the 2019 Amendment, the Chairperson of the NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court (earlier it was only a retired Chief Justice of India).
Statement 2 is incorrect: After the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, the term of office of the Chairperson and members was reduced from 5 years to 3 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Statement 3 is correct: The NHRC has all the powers of a Civil Court and its proceedings have a judicial character. It can summon and enforce attendance, require documents, receive evidence, requisition records, etc..
Statement 4 is incorrect: The recommendations of the NHRC are not binding on the government. The NHRC only has recommendatory powers and cannot enforce its recommendations. Governments may outright reject or partially comply with NHRC recommendations, which is considered one of the major limitations of the Commission.
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