Daily Static Quiz (Science and Tech) November 10, 2025

Daily Static Quiz (Science and Tech) November 10, 2025

Question 1:

Consider the following statements regarding massive cosmic events and their observable effects:

1. When two black holes merge, they emit ripples in spacetime that can be detected on Earth using laser interferometers.

2. Gravitational waves pass through matter and radiation without significant interaction, enabling observation of events invisible to electromagnetic telescopes.

3. The first detection of such waves occurred in 2015 when two neutron stars collided approximately 1.3 billion light-years away.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Question 2:

With reference to celestial objects and their formation, consider the following:

1. Cepheids are giant clouds of dust and gas that serve as star-forming regions.

2. Nebulae are stars that exhibit periodic variations in brightness.

3. Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars formed from the collapse of massive stars.

How many of the above pairs are correctly described?

(a) None
(b) One only
(c) Two only
(d) All three

Question 3:

Consider the following statements regarding gravitational lensing:

1. It is a phenomenon where the gravitational field of a massive object bends light rays passing near it.

2. More massive objects produce stronger gravitational fields, resulting in greater bending of light rays.

3. Gravitational lensing cannot be utilized to detect or study dark matter in the universe.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Question 4:

Consider the following statements about neutron stars and black holes:

1. Like black holes, neutron stars are formed due to supernova explosions when massive star cores collapse.

2. The mass of a neutron star typically ranges from 1 to 3 times the solar mass; anything greater is likely a black hole.

3. Neutron stars possess a defined hard surface, whereas black holes do not have a physical surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Question 5:

Consider the following statements regarding CAR-T cell immunotherapy:

1. CAR-T cells are engineered by extracting a patient’s T lymphocytes, genetically modifying them with a Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) to recognize specific cancer antigens, expanding them in culture, and reinfusing them into the patient.

2. CAR-T cell therapy has demonstrated high effectiveness in treating solid tumors such as pancreatic cancer and breast cancer across all patient populations.

3. The engineered CAR-T cells are capable of autonomous proliferation and persistence within the patient’s body, providing prolonged anti-cancer activity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Question 6:

Consider the following statements regarding gene therapy approaches:

1. Somatic gene therapy modifies reproductive cells and creates heritable genetic changes that pass to future generations.

2. In-vivo gene therapy involves direct gene editing performed inside the patient’s body through targeted tissue delivery.

3. Ex-vivo gene therapy requires extraction and laboratory modification of cells before reintroduction into the patient.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All of these

Question 7:

Which of the following biotechnological applications correctly matches with its function?

1. RNA interference (RNAi) – Used in developing gene silencing therapies and treatments for viral infections in crops.

2. Restriction endonucleases – Enzymes that recognize and cut specific DNA sequences, also called molecular scissors.

3. Transcriptomics – The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Question 8:

With reference to recently documented species and their conservation status, consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Courser, Indian Roller, and Rufous-tailed Lark have been uplisted to Near Threatened category due to habitat loss in grasslands and agricultural intensification.

2. Long-billed Grasshopper-warbler has been uplisted to Endangered status, primarily affected by expansion of power infrastructure and conversion of natural grasslands.

3. All uplisted bird species depend on open natural ecosystems including grasslands, semi-arid landscapes, and fallow lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Question 9:

Consider the following statements regarding recombinant DNA technology:

1. DNA fragments from different sources can be cut and combined using restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.

2. This technology allows genes to be transferred across different species of plants, from animals to plants, and from microorganisms to higher organisms.

3. The process requires initial fragmentation of DNA, ligation into vectors, and insertion into host cells.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Question 10:

With reference to black holes and related cosmic phenomena, consider the following statements:

1. Black holes are formed when massive stars collapse under their own gravity, creating a region where not even light can escape.

2. The boundary around a black hole singularity, called the event horizon, marks the point of no return for matter and radiation.

3. Black hole mergers generate detectable gravitational waves on Earth, releasing immense energy in the process.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS

Question 1: Answer (a) – 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. When two massive objects such as black holes merge, they accelerate rapidly and distort spacetime, creating ripples known as gravitational waves. These waves propagate outward and can be detected using highly sensitive laser interferometers like LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory). The detection of such waves provides direct evidence supporting Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. A fundamental characteristic of gravitational waves is that they can pass through matter and radiation without significant interaction or attenuation. This property is scientifically significant because it allows researchers to observe cosmic events and regions that electromagnetic waves (light) cannot penetrate, thereby opening new avenues for astronomical observation. This is particularly valuable for studying the vicinity of black holes and neutron star mergers where electromagnetic radiation may be obscured.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT. The first confirmed detection of gravitational waves occurred in September 2015 when LIGO detected waves generated by the merger of two black holes (not neutron stars), located approximately 1.3 billion light-years away. This event is designated as GW150914. While neutron star mergers have subsequently been detected (such as GW170817 in 2017), the inaugural detection involved black holes. Additionally, the stated distance is consistent with the first detection, making the primary error the identification of the merging objects as neutron stars rather than black holes.

Question 2: Answer (b) – One only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is INCORRECT. Cepheids are not giant clouds of dust and gas. Rather, they are variable stars—celestial bodies that exhibit periodic changes in brightness and luminosity. Cepheids belong to a class of pulsating variables whose brightness oscillates regularly, a property exploited by astronomers as “standard candles” for measuring cosmic distances.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT. Nebulae are precisely the opposite of what is stated here. Nebulae are giant clouds of dust and gas dispersed throughout space, often serving as stellar nurseries where new stars form under gravitational collapse. They do not exhibit periodic brightness variations as described.

Statement 3 is CORRECT. Pulsars are indeed rapidly rotating neutron stars that emit regular pulses of electromagnetic radiation, typically in the radio frequency range. They form as a consequence of supernova explosions when massive stars (approximately 20+ solar masses) exhaust their fuel, undergo gravitational collapse, and the core compresses to extreme density. This collapse causes protons and electrons to combine, forming neutrons. Pulsars possess extraordinarily strong magnetic fields that channel jets of charged particles along their magnetic poles, producing the characteristic pulsed emissions detected on Earth.

Therefore, only one statement (Statement 3) is correctly described.

Question 3: Answer (a) – 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. Gravitational lensing is indeed a phenomenon rooted in Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, wherein massive objects curve spacetime around them. When light rays from distant astronomical objects pass near such massive structures, their paths are bent or deflected due to the curvature of spacetime. The effect is analogous to refraction produced by optical lenses on Earth, hence the term “gravitational lensing.”

Statement 2 is CORRECT. The degree of light bending is directly proportional to the mass of the object creating the gravitational field. More massive objects generate stronger gravitational fields, which produce greater curvature of spacetime in their vicinity, resulting in increased bending of light rays. This principle parallels optical physics, where denser materials used in constructing optical lenses cause greater refraction of light.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT. Gravitational lensing is, in fact, a powerful tool for studying and detecting dark matter. Because dark matter is invisible to electromagnetic radiation, it cannot be directly observed through conventional telescopes. However, its gravitational effects on light from distant objects can be quantified by analyzing the patterns of gravitational lensing. By measuring the degree and distribution of light bending, astronomers can infer the presence and distribution of dark matter in the universe. Gravitational lensing has been instrumental in confirming the existence of dark matter and determining its abundance in cosmic structures.

Question 4: Answer (c) – 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. Neutron stars and black holes share a common origin: both form through catastrophic gravitational collapse following supernova explosions of massive stars. When the core of a massive star (typically >20 solar masses) exhausts its nuclear fuel, it collapses under gravitational force. The dramatic contraction generates a supernova explosion that expels the star’s outer layers into space. The remaining core, depending on its mass, either becomes a neutron star or a black hole.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT. The correct mass threshold is reversed from the statement. Neutron stars typically possess masses ranging from approximately 1.4 to 3 solar masses. Objects with masses greater than approximately 3 solar masses (following the collapse of even more massive stars) result in black hole formation rather than neutron star formation. The boundary between neutron star and black hole formation lies in this mass range, though the exact threshold depends on various factors including the equation of state of neutron star matter. This mass range is known as the “mass gap.”

Statement 3 is CORRECT. A fundamental distinction between neutron stars and black holes is the presence or absence of a surface. Neutron stars, despite their extraordinary density and exotic composition, possess a defined hard surface (though extremely rigid and composed of neutron-degenerate matter). In contrast, black holes lack a physical surface; instead, they possess an event horizon—a theoretical boundary beyond which no information or matter can escape. Beyond the event horizon lies a singularity where all matter is theoretically compressed to infinite density, representing a region where our current understanding of physics breaks down.

Question 5: Answer (a) – 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. CAR-T cell immunotherapy is a sophisticated biotechnological approach that follows a precisely defined multi-step procedure. T lymphocytes (specifically T cells, a critical component of adaptive immunity) are extracted from the patient’s blood through a process called apheresis. In laboratory settings, these T cells undergo genetic engineering using recombinant DNA technology to express a synthetic receptor called a Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) on their cell surface. This CAR is specifically designed to recognize and bind to unique antigens expressed on the surface of cancer cells. Once engineered, the CAR-T cells are cultured and expanded to generate millions of copies. These expanded cells are then reinfused into the patient’s bloodstream where they can identify and eliminate cancer cells expressing the target antigen. NextCAR19, the first indigenously developed CAR-T therapy in India (developed by ImmunoACT with Tata Memorial Hospital and IIT Bombay), represents a significant advancement in domestically produced cancer immunotherapy.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT. While CAR-T cell therapy has demonstrated remarkable success in treating blood cancers, particularly B-cell malignancies such as acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), chronic lymphoblastic leukemia (CLL), and certain lymphomas, its application to solid tumors remains extremely limited. The therapy has NOT shown comparable effectiveness in solid tumors like pancreatic or breast cancer. The challenge with solid tumors relates to several factors: the hostile tumor microenvironment, limited CAR-T cell infiltration into solid tissue, antigen heterogeneity within solid tumors, and the presence of immunosuppressive factors that inhibit T cell function. Current research efforts are actively attempting to overcome these limitations, but approved CAR-T therapies are restricted primarily to hematologic malignancies at present.

Statement 3 is CORRECT. Once reinfused into the patient, CAR-T cells demonstrate remarkable longevity and autonomous functionality. These engineered cells retain the natural properties of T cells, including their capacity to proliferate (divide and multiply) in response to encountering target antigen-expressing cells. CAR-T cells can persist within the patient’s body for extended periods (months to years), establishing a form of immunological memory. This persistence provides sustained anti-cancer activity, meaning the CAR-T cells continue to circulate, recognize, and eliminate cancer cells expressing the target antigen long after the initial infusion. This durable response distinguishes CAR-T therapy from traditional chemotherapy, which requires repeated administrations. The persistence of CAR-T cells can also lead to cytokine release syndrome (CRS) if the immune response becomes excessive, representing both a therapeutic advantage and a potential adverse effect requiring clinical monitoring.

Question 6: Answer (b) – 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is INCORRECT. The description presented is inverted. Somatic gene therapy specifically targets non-reproductive (somatic) cells such as liver cells, blood cells, muscle cells, etc. Genetic modifications made in somatic cells are confined to the treated individual and are not heritable—they do not pass to future generations. In contrast, germline gene therapy targets reproductive cells (sperm or egg) and creates heritable genetic changes that can be transmitted to offspring. Therefore, the statement incorrectly attributes heritable characteristics to somatic therapy.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. In-vivo gene therapy involves the direct delivery and modification of genetic material within the patient’s living body. Therapeutic genes or gene-editing tools (such as CRISPR components) are delivered directly to targeted tissues in vivo using viral vectors, lipid nanoparticles, or other delivery mechanisms. This approach has the advantage of reducing procedural complexity and duration compared to ex-vivo approaches, as it eliminates the need for cell extraction, culture manipulation, and reintroduction.

Statement 3 is CORRECT. Ex-vivo gene therapy follows a distinct procedural pathway: cells are first extracted from the patient’s body, transported to a laboratory setting, and subjected to genetic modification using gene-editing tools or gene addition techniques. After successful modification and verification, the corrected cells are cultured and expanded in vitro, then reintroduced into the patient’s body. This approach, while more technically complex and time-consuming than in-vivo therapy, offers advantages including precise control over the editing process and pre-verification of successful modification before returning cells to the patient. Recent successes include ex-vivo CAR-T cell therapies for certain cancers.

Question 7: Answer (d) – 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Option 1) is CORRECT. RNA interference (RNAi) represents a powerful biotechnological tool in medicine and agriculture. The technology exploits the cell’s natural gene regulation mechanisms to achieve gene silencing. In medical research, RNAi is employed in developing therapies that suppress disease-causing gene expression. In agricultural biotechnology, RNAi has been particularly effective in creating plants resistant to viral pathogens by silencing genes essential to viral replication or host susceptibility factors. This application has proven invaluable in developing disease-resistant crop varieties.

Statement 2 (Option 2) is CORRECT. Restriction endonucleases are enzymatic proteins that recognize and cleave DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. These enzymes are fundamental to recombinant DNA technology and are often referred to as “molecular scissors” due to their precise cutting function. By cutting DNA at predetermined recognition sites, restriction enzymes enable the fragmentation of chromosomal DNA into manageable pieces, which can subsequently be manipulated, combined, and inserted into vectors for genetic engineering applications.

Statement 3 (Option 3) is CORRECT. Transcriptomics refers to the comprehensive study of all messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules expressed by a cell, tissue, or organism under specific conditions. The transcriptome represents the complete set of transcribed genes and reflects the dynamic gene expression profile of biological systems. Unlike the static genome (which remains largely constant), the transcriptome is dynamic and changes in response to developmental stages, environmental conditions, and physiological states. Transcriptomic analysis provides insights into which genes are actively expressed and at what levels, revealing the molecular basis of cellular function and disease.

Question 8: Answer (d) – 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. In October 2025, the IUCN Red List was updated to reflect the changing conservation status of 12 Indian bird species. Four species were uplisted (moved to more threatened categories): specifically, the Indian Courser (Cursorius coromandelicus), Indian Roller (Coracias benghalensis), and Rufous-tailed Lark (Ammomanes phoenicurus) were all upgraded to Near Threatened status. These changes reflect deteriorating population trends driven primarily by habitat degradation and loss. Habitat destruction stems from agricultural intensification, expansion of power infrastructure (including transmission lines and renewable energy installations), and conversion of grasslands into other land uses through afforestation and development.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. The Long-billed Grasshopper-warbler (Locustella acanthisyla) was uplisted to Endangered status during the same IUCN update. This more severe threat classification reflects alarming population declines. The primary threats driving this decline include infrastructure expansion (particularly power lines associated with increased electrification), intensification of agricultural practices, introduction of invasive species that degrade habitat quality, and the conversion of open grasslands into woodlands through afforestation programs. These cumulative pressures have severely reduced suitable habitat for this species.

Statement 3 is CORRECT. All four uplisted species are specialist inhabitants of open natural ecosystems. Their shared ecological requirements include dependence on grasslands, semi-arid landscapes, deserts, natural grassland-dominated agricultural mosaics (including managed crops fields and fallow lands), hilly scrublands, and other open habitats. Conversely, these species are adversely affected by landscape changes that increase woodland cover, fragmentation of open areas, and intensification of land use practices. The convergence of threats to these open-habitat specialists highlights the vulnerability of grassland ecosystems in India to anthropogenic land-use changes.

Question 9: Answer (d) – 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. Recombinant DNA technology is predicated on the ability to fragment, manipulate, and recombine DNA molecules from different sources. Restriction endonucleases serve as “molecular scissors,” recognizing specific DNA sequences and cleaving the double helix at those sites. DNA ligases function as “molecular glue,” catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between DNA fragments, thereby joining them together. These enzymes form the enzymatic foundation enabling scientists to construct novel DNA sequences by combining genetic material from disparate sources—the fundamental principle underlying genetic engineering.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. Recombinant DNA technology demonstrates remarkable versatility in enabling genetic transfer across biological kingdoms and species barriers:

• Across plant species: Genes conferring desirable traits (drought tolerance, pest resistance, nutritional enhancement) can be transferred from one plant species to another.

• From animals to plants: Foreign genes from animals can be inserted into plant cells, exemplified by transgenic plants expressing animal genes for pest resistance or other beneficial traits.

• From microorganisms to higher organisms: Microbial genes encoding valuable proteins (such as human insulin, human growth hormone, and therapeutic enzymes) have been successfully introduced into bacterial hosts, plants, and animal cells for pharmaceutical production.

This cross-kingdom genetic transfer capability demonstrates the power and flexibility of recombinant DNA technology in addressing diverse biotechnological objectives.

Statement 3 is CORRECT. The recombinant DNA production process follows a systematic sequence of steps:

1. Isolation of genetic material: Extraction of DNA from source organisms

2. Fragmentation: Cutting DNA using restriction endonucleases at specific recognition sequences

3. Selection and screening: Isolation of desired DNA fragments containing the gene of interest

4. Ligation: Joining selected DNA fragments using DNA ligases

5. Insertion into vectors: Introduction of recombinant DNA into plasmid or viral vectors

6. Transformation: Uptake of vectors into host cells (bacterial, plant, or animal)

7. Amplification: Replication and expression of the inserted gene within host cells

8. Product isolation: Purification and characterization of the desired gene product

This systematic approach ensures the successful creation of transgenic organisms and production of recombinant proteins.

Question 10: Answer (d) – 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is CORRECT. Black holes originate from the gravitational collapse of massive stars (typically with initial masses exceeding 25 solar masses) that have exhausted their nuclear fuel. When nuclear fusion ceases, the star’s core, no longer supported by radiation pressure, collapses catastrophically under its own gravitational force. This collapse compresses all remaining mass into an infinitesimal volume, creating a region of extreme spacetime curvature. The defining characteristic of a black hole is its event horizon—a spherical boundary within which gravitational attraction becomes so intense that the escape velocity exceeds the speed of light. Consequently, nothing, including electromagnetic radiation (light), can escape from within the event horizon, rendering black holes invisible to direct observation via traditional telescopy.

Statement 2 is CORRECT. The event horizon is a critical concept in black hole physics. It represents a mathematical and physical boundary surrounding the singularity (the presumed point of infinite density at the black hole’s center). The event horizon defines the “point of no return”—the gravitational Rubicon beyond which no particle, information, or radiation can escape to reach distant observers. The radius of the event horizon, known as the Schwarzschild radius, is proportional to the black hole’s mass. For a black hole of one solar mass, the Schwarzschild radius is approximately 3 kilometers. Once matter or radiation crosses the event horizon, it is inexorably drawn toward the singularity and is effectively removed from the observable universe.

Statement 3 is CORRECT. When two black holes undergo orbital decay (inspiralling due to gravitational wave emission), they spiral closer together in an accelerating dance of increasing frequency and amplitude. This acceleration of massive objects distorts spacetime dramatically, generating intense gravitational waves that propagate outward at the speed of light. When the black holes finally merge, the collision releases an extraordinarily energetic burst of gravitational radiation—theoretically emitting more energy in the final moments of merger than all the electromagnetic radiation (light, radio, X-rays) emitted by all stars in the observable universe during the entire age of the universe. These merger events generate the strongest gravitational wave signals detectable by observatories like LIGO and have enabled the direct confirmation of Einstein’s century-old predictions regarding gravitational waves.

Daily Static Quiz