Daily Static Quiz (Polity) March 17, 2025

Question 1: With reference to the ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It was first propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973.

2. The Constitution explicitly mentions what constitutes the ‘basic structure’.

3. Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

4. The doctrine was reinforced in the Minerva Mills case of 1980.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 2: The Constitution of India has been described as ‘quasi-federal’ by constitutional experts. Which of the following provisions emphasize the unitary character of the Indian federation?

1. Single citizenship for all Indians

2. The Governor’s role as an agent of the Centre

3. The Centre’s power to reorganize the States territorially

4. Financial dependence of States on the Centre

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 3: Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. Article 368 exclusively deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

2. Constitutional amendments regarding federalism require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

3. The President cannot withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill.

4. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Question 4: Match List-I (Constitutional Features) with List-II (Source Countries) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Constitutional Features)
A. Parliamentary form of government
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Federal structure with a strong Centre

List-II (Source Countries)

1. USA

2. Ireland

3. UK

4. Canada

Code:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Question 5: Match List-I (Constitutional Provisions) with List-II (Source Countries) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Constitutional Provisions)
A. Procedure established by law
B. Concurrent List
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Emergency provisions

List-II (Source Countries)

1. Australia

2. Japan

3. USSR (former)

4. Germany (Weimar)

Code:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Question 6: Consider the following statements regarding Article 1 of the Indian Constitution:

1. It declares India as a ‘Union of States’.

2. The term ‘Union of States’ emphasizes that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states.

3. It recognizes only 28 states and 8 union territories as constituents of the Indian Union.

4. It provides that the territory of India shall comprise the territories of the states, union territories, and territories that may be acquired.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 7: With reference to Articles 2-4 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Parliament can form a new state by separation of territory from any state only with the consent of the concerned state legislature.

2. Parliament can diminish the area of a state by simple majority.

3. A law enacted under Article 3 is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368.

4. The President must refer any bill under Article 3 to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8: Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Doctrine of Severability’ as applied to laws violating Fundamental Rights:

1. It is derived from Article 13 of the Constitution.

2. Under this doctrine, if a part of a law violates fundamental rights, only that part becomes void.

3. The Supreme Court can declare the entire law void if the valid and invalid parts are inseparable.

4. Laws included in the Ninth Schedule are immune from the application of this doctrine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 9: With reference to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following rights have been recognized by the Supreme Court as implied within the ‘Right to Life and Personal Liberty’?

1. Right to privacy

2. Right to travel abroad

3. Right to free legal aid

4. Right to shelter

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 10: Consider the following statements regarding the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court held that Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are complementary to each other.

2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights specified in Articles 14 and 19.

3. In Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights cannot be abrogated while implementing Directive Principles.

4. The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act inserted Article 31C which protected laws implementing certain Directive Principles from being challenged as violative of fundamental rights.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Key with Explanations

Answer 1: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: The Basic Structure Doctrine was first propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973 (statement 1 is correct). According to this doctrine, Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution (statement 3 is correct). The Constitution does not explicitly mention what constitutes the ‘basic structure’; it has been identified by the judiciary through various judgments (statement 2 is incorrect). The doctrine was indeed reinforced in the Minerva Mills case of 1980, which further solidified the concept of basic structure (statement 4 is correct).

Answer 2: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Indian Constitution establishes a quasi-federal system with strong unitary features. All the given provisions emphasize the unitary character: Single citizenship (statement 1) is a unitary feature unlike dual citizenship in federal countries like USA; the Governor’s role as the Centre’s agent (statement 2) allows central oversight of states; the Centre’s power to reorganize states territorially under Articles 3 and 4 (statement 3) gives it significant control over state boundaries; and the financial dependence of states on the Centre through grants-in-aid and centralized tax collection (statement 4) limits state autonomy.

Answer 3: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Article 368 exclusively deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution (statement 1 is correct). Constitutional amendments regarding federalism (such as election of President, representation of states in Parliament, powers of the Supreme Court, distribution of legislative powers between Centre and States) require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures (statement 2 is correct). The President can withhold assent to a constitutional amendment bill (statement 3 is incorrect). Some provisions, like creation of new states or alteration of state boundaries under Article 4, can be amended by a simple majority in Parliament (statement 4 is correct).

Answer 4: (a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

Explanation:

• Parliamentary form of government (A) was borrowed from the United Kingdom (3)

• Fundamental Rights (B) were influenced by the United States Constitution (1)

• Directive Principles of State Policy (C) were inspired by the Irish Constitution (2)

• Federal structure with a strong Centre (D) was influenced by the Canadian Constitution (4)

Answer 5: (a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Explanation:

• “Procedure established by law” (A) was borrowed from Japan (2)

• Concurrent List (B) was inspired by the Australian Constitution (1)

• Fundamental Duties (C) were added later through the 42nd Amendment, drawing inspiration from the USSR (3)

• Emergency provisions (D) were influenced by the Weimar Constitution of Germany (4)

Answer 6: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation: Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as a ‘Union of States’ (statement 1 is correct). The term ‘Union of States’ was deliberately chosen to emphasize that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states and that the states have no right to secede from the Union (statement 2 is correct). Article 1 does not specify the exact number of states and union territories; this has changed over time with reorganization (statement 3 is incorrect). Article 1(3) provides that the territory of India shall comprise the territories of states, union territories, and any territories that may be acquired (statement 4 is correct).

Answer 7: (b) 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Parliament can form a new state without the consent of the concerned state legislature; the state’s views are sought but are not binding (statement 1 is incorrect). Parliament needs to pass a constitutional amendment with special majority, not simple majority, to diminish the area of a state (statement 2 is incorrect). A law enacted under Article 3 is indeed not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368 (statement 3 is correct). The President must refer any bill under Article 3 to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views, although these views are not binding on Parliament (statement 4 is correct).

Answer 8: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Doctrine of Severability is derived from Article 13 of the Constitution, which declares laws inconsistent with fundamental rights to be void to the extent of inconsistency (statement 1 is correct). Under this doctrine, if a part of a law violates fundamental rights, only that part becomes void, not the entire law (statement 2 is correct). The Supreme Court can declare the entire law void if the valid and invalid parts are inseparable (statement 3 is correct). Laws included in the Ninth Schedule are not completely immune from the application of this doctrine after the I.R. Coelho case (2007), which held that even Ninth Schedule laws can be reviewed if they violate the basic structure (statement 4 is incorrect).

Answer 9: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The Supreme Court has significantly expanded the scope of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) through various judgments. It has recognized all of the mentioned rights as implied within Article 21:

• Right to privacy (in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case, 2017)

• Right to travel abroad (in Maneka Gandhi case, 1978)

• Right to free legal aid (in Hussainara Khatoon case, 1979)

• Right to shelter (in Chameli Singh case, 1995)

Answer 10: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are complementary to each other, forming a balanced wheel of the Constitution (statement 1 is correct). The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act attempted to accord precedence to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights in Articles 14, 19, and 31, not just 14 and 19 (statement 2 is incorrect). In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights cannot be abrogated while implementing Directive Principles, as they are part of the basic structure (statement 3 is correct). The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act (1971) inserted Article 31C, which initially protected laws implementing Directive Principles under Articles 39(b) and 39(c) from being challenged as violative of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, and 31 (statement 4 is correct)

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