Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 11, 2025
Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 11, 2025
QUESTION 1
Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution of India:
The Preamble of the Constitution declares India as a “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.”
The objectives stated in the Preamble are enforceable in a court of law.
The terms “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble through the 42nd Amendment Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 2
With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which of the following best describes the concept of “Fraternity” as mentioned therein?
(a) The legal status of all citizens as equals before the law
(b) The spirit of brotherhood and unity while maintaining dignity of individuals and national unity
(c) The economic equality and equitable distribution of wealth among citizens
(d) The freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
QUESTION 3
Which one of the following constitutional provisions forms the foundation for establishing a “Welfare State” as envisioned by the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Fundamental Rights (Part III)
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
(c) The Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)
(d) The Preamble
QUESTION 4
Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:
The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament.
The Vice-President presides over both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
The Vice-President may be removed from office by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha alone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 5
With reference to the Prime Minister of India, which of the following statements is/are correct regarding their tenure?
The Prime Minister’s term is fixed at five years.
The Prime Minister holds office during the pleasure of the President but continues only as long as they retain the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
The Prime Minister can be removed by the President at any time without the Prime Minister losing the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 6
Consider the following with respect to Article 371 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 371 provides special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat relating to the establishment of separate development boards.
Under Article 371-A, Acts of Parliament relating to Nagaland’s religious and social practices require the State Assembly’s resolution for application.
Article 371-J provides for equitable opportunities in public employment and education across different regions of Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
The CAG is appointed by the President of India and holds office for a fixed term of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
The CAG has the authority to audit only Union government expenditures and not state government expenditures.
The CAG is responsible for auditing all transactions related to the Consolidated Fund of India and Consolidated Funds of States.
The CAG reports are laid before Parliament by the President of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
QUESTION 8
With reference to the 74th Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
The 74th Amendment provides for three types of urban local bodies: Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, and Municipal Corporation.
The tenure of a municipality is fixed at five years from the date of appointment of its first meeting.
The 74th Amendment introduced the concept of urban local self-governance through Part IX-A of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
QUESTION 9
Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
The DPSP are justiciable and enforceable through courts of law.
Article 37 of the Constitution states that nothing in the DPSP shall be enforceable by any court.
The 42nd Amendment Act added the principle of “equal justice and free legal aid” to the DPSP.
The DPSP aims to establish social and economic democracy rather than merely political democracy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
QUESTION 10
Which one of the following committees established during the Constituent Assembly was responsible for drafting the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Drafting Committee
(b) Fundamental Rights Committee
(c) Union Constitution Committee
(d) Provincial Constitution Committee
Answers & Explanations
QUESTION 1
ANSWER: (a) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is correct. The Preamble of the Constitution declares India as a “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic” and pledges to secure justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity to all citizens.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Preamble, while not directly enforceable as the substantive provisions of the Constitution, serves as an interpretive guide. In the landmark judgment of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that while the Preamble is not enforceable per se, it guides the interpretation of constitutional provisions and reflects the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 inserted the words “Socialist” and “Secular” into the Preamble, along with the word “Integrity” in the final phrase regarding fraternity. This amendment was passed during the Emergency period (1975-1977) and marked a significant constitutional modification of the Preamble.
Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
QUESTION 2
ANSWER: (b) The spirit of brotherhood and unity while maintaining dignity of individuals and national unity
EXPLANATION:
The Preamble mentions “Fraternity” as one of the four ideals—alongside Justice, Liberty, and Equality—to be secured to all citizens. The term “Fraternity” specifically emphasizes the spirit of brotherhood, mutual understanding, and social cohesion among citizens while respecting individual dignity and maintaining the national integrity.
The Preamble explicitly states: “…and promote fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.”
This concept is particularly significant in a diverse, multicultural nation like India where people from different religions, castes, communities, and regions coexist. Fraternity binds them together through mutual respect and common national identity.
Option (a) describes equality, option (c) relates to socialism, and option (d) pertains to liberty. Only option (b) accurately captures the essence of fraternity as conceptualized in the Preamble.
QUESTION 3
ANSWER: (b) The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
EXPLANATION:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36-51), form the constitutional basis for establishing a Welfare State in India. These principles guide the state in framing laws and policies to secure the social, economic, and political welfare of its citizens.
While the Preamble declares the goals of justice and equality, the DPSP provides specific guidelines for implementation. Unlike Fundamental Rights which are enforceable through courts, DPSPs are non-justiciable but are considered “fundamental in the governance of the country” (Article 37).
The purpose of DPSP, as established through constitutional jurisprudence and the legislative record, is to transform India from a “Police State” (characteristic of colonial rule) to a “Welfare State” where the government actively participates in securing the well-being of its citizens.
UPSC 2020 specifically tested that the DPSP declares the ideal of a Welfare State, distinguishing it from Fundamental Rights which establish political democracy. Thus, option (b) is the most accurate answer.
QUESTION 4
ANSWER: (a) 1 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 63 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) through an indirect election. The electoral college consists of all elected members of both houses, not including the President or state legislators.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64), the Vice-President does not preside over the Lok Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the Lok Sabha. This is an important distinction in the functional roles of the two positions.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Vice-President can only be removed through impeachment, not by a simple resolution of the Rajya Sabha. The removal process requires a motion signed by at least one-fourth of the members of Parliament and notice of 14 days to the Vice-President. The motion must be taken up within 14 days, and removal requires a two-thirds majority in Parliament. The Rajya Sabha alone cannot effect removal.
Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
QUESTION 5
ANSWER: (b) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The tenure of the Prime Minister is not fixed at five years. While the term of the Lok Sabha is five years, the Prime Minister’s tenure is not constitutionally fixed and is determined by their ability to command the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct. This represents the fundamental principle of parliamentary government in India. Article 75(5) states that the Prime Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, this is a formal constitutional fiction. In practice, the Prime Minister must retain the confidence of the Lok Sabha. As long as the Prime Minister commands a majority in the Lok Sabha, the President cannot dismiss them. If the Prime Minister loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, they must resign or face a vote of no confidence.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Although formally the Prime Minister holds office “during the pleasure of the President,” the President cannot arbitrarily remove the Prime Minister if they retain the confidence of the Lok Sabha. This would violate the principle of parliamentary democracy. The President’s powers in this regard are limited and must be exercised within constitutional conventions.
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
QUESTION 6
ANSWER: (a) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is correct. Article 371 empowers the President to provide that the Governor of Maharashtra and Gujarat shall have special responsibility for establishing separate development boards for specific regions (Vidarbha and Marathwada for Maharashtra; Saurashtra and Kutch for Gujarat). These boards are tasked with promoting the development of economically backward areas.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 371-A grants special provisions to Nagaland, protecting the state’s unique cultural identity. It stipulates that Acts of Parliament relating to Nagaland’s religious and social practices, customary law, civil and criminal justice involving Naga customary law, and ownership or transfer of land shall not apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect. This is a crucial provision protecting Naga sovereignty over internal matters.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The provisions you are describing apply to Article 371-D (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana), not Article 371-J. Article 371-D empowers the President to provide for equitable opportunities and facilities in public employment and education across different regions of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Article 371-J pertains to Karnataka’s Hyderabad-Karnataka region and deals with development boards and equitable allocation of funds, not public employment and education opportunities across different regions.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
QUESTION 7
ANSWER: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is correct. The CAG is appointed by the President of India (Article 148). The CAG’s tenure is fixed at six years from the date of assumption of office or until reaching the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The age ceiling was introduced through the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The CAG’s authority extends beyond Union government to state governments as well. Article 148 provides for the CAG to audit accounts of the Union and States. Additionally, the CAG audits accounts of Union Territories, local bodies, and other statutory authorities as prescribed by law. This is a comprehensive audit mandate.
Statement 3 is correct. The CAG audits all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Funds of each state. This includes auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Centre and states to ensure proper assessment, collection, and allocation of revenue. This is one of the core functions of the CAG.
Statement 4 is correct. Under Article 151, the CAG submits audit reports to the President of India, who causes them to be laid before Parliament. For state accounts, the CAG submits reports to the Governor, who presents them to the state legislature. These audit reports form the basis for discussion in the Public Accounts Committee and enable parliamentary scrutiny of governmental finances.
Hence, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
QUESTION 8
ANSWER: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is correct. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) provides for the constitution of three types of municipalities classified on the basis of size and area of urban settlements:
Nagar Panchayat: For an area in transition from rural to urban
Municipal Council: For smaller urban areas
Municipal Corporation: For larger urban areas
This tripartite classification ensures that urban local governance is scaled appropriately to population size and administrative requirements.
Statement 2 is correct. According to the Amendment, every municipality constituted shall have a fixed tenure of five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. The law mandates that elections for constituting a new municipality must be completed before the expiration of this five-year term. If a municipality is dissolved before the expiry of five years, elections must be held within six months of dissolution.
Statement 3 is correct. The 74th Amendment Act introduced Part IX-A of the Constitution (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG) which provides for the constitutional framework of urban local bodies. This amendment was landmark legislation for decentralization and democratization of urban governance, giving constitutional status to municipalities as institutions of self-government—a principle that is “fundamental in the governance of the country” under Article 243-W.
Hence, all three statements are correct.
QUESTION 9
ANSWER: (c) 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The DPSP are explicitly non-justiciable and not enforceable by courts. While they are important principles guiding state policy, they do not have the force of law and cannot be the basis of a court judgment.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 37 of the Constitution clearly states: “Nothing in this Part shall be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
This provision distinguishes DPSP from Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable and enforceable. However, DPSP remain significant as non-enforceable guides to state action.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the 42nd Amendment Act (1976) made several additions to the DPSP, including references to securing “equal justice and free legal aid,” the specific addition you mention relates to Article 39-A which deals with “free legal aid.” The 42nd Amendment did add Article 48-A regarding protection of environment and 51-A regarding fundamental duties, but the characterization in the statement is not precise enough.
Statement 4 is correct. The purpose and philosophy of DPSP, as embedded in the Constitution and interpreted through constitutional jurisprudence, is to establish social and economic democracy in addition to political democracy. While Fundamental Rights establish political democracy and civil liberties, DPSP aim to secure socio-economic justice. This was the constitutional framers’ vision for a comprehensive democratic state that addresses citizens’ material well-being and not merely political participation.
Hence, statements 2 and 4 are correct.
QUESTION 10
ANSWER: (b) Fundamental Rights Committee
EXPLANATION:
While many might assume the Drafting Committee drafted all constitutional provisions, this question specifically asks about the committee that drafted the Directive Principles of State Policy.
The Fundamental Rights Committee, chaired by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, was responsible for preparing the draft of what would become Part III (Fundamental Rights) and Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution. This committee worked on balancing individual rights with state duties toward citizens’ welfare.
The Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, was the most important committee and was responsible for synthesizing the work of all other committees and preparing the final text of the Constitution for adoption. However, the specific drafting of DPSP was primarily the work of the Fundamental Rights Committee.
The Union Constitution Committee, chaired by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, dealt with the structure of the Union, states, and division of powers between Union and State governments.
The Provincial Constitution Committee dealt with provincial governance structures.
Among these, the Fundamental Rights Committee had the specific mandate for drafting DPSP, making option (b) the correct answer.
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