Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 4, 2025
Daily Static Quiz (Polity) November 4, 2025
Q.1 Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution:
Fundamental Rights are enforceable in courts of law and citizens can seek legal remedies if these rights are violated.
The Fundamental Rights were reduced in number by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right but was later converted to a Constitutional Right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.2 With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), consider the following statements:
The DPSP are positive in nature and guide the State in formulating laws and policies for the welfare of the people.
Unlike Fundamental Rights, the DPSP are not enforceable by courts but carry moral and political sanctity.
The concept of uniform civil code is mentioned in the DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.3 In India, the Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution through which amendment?
(a) 40th Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(c) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(d) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
Q.4 Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:
An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated through a bill in either house of Parliament, but the bill must be introduced by a Government Minister.
For amendments affecting the federal character of the Constitution, ratification by legislatures of at least half of the States is required.
The President’s assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill is discretionary and may be withheld.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Q.5 Which of the following is NOT a function of Parliamentary Standing Committees?
(a) To scrutinize and review the working of various Ministries and Departments
(b) To examine demands for grants and suggest economies
(c) To levy taxes and control public expenditure directly
(d) To investigate and report on matters referred to them by the Houses
Q.6 With reference to the jurisdiction of High Courts in India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) High Courts possess only appellate jurisdiction over lower courts
(b) High Courts have original jurisdiction in civil cases exceeding a specified value and constitutional matters
(c) High Courts cannot exercise supervisory jurisdiction over tribunals and quasi-judicial bodies
(d) High Courts cannot issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
Q.7 Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
The NCST was established as a separate constitutional body in 2004 through the 89th Amendment Act.
The NCST comprises a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and three other members appointed by the President.
The primary function of NCST is to levy taxes on scheduled tribes for developmental purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.8 The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 350A
(b) Article 350B
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 338A
Q.9 With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider the following:
The CAG is appointed by the President for a term of six years and can be removed only through impeachment by Parliament.
The CAG has the power to audit only the receipts and expenditures of the Central Government but not State Governments.
The CAG reports are placed before both Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.10 Consider the following statements about State Legislatures:
Members of a State Legislature enjoy immunity from being sued for speeches or votes given in the legislature.
A State Legislature can pass a law on any subject mentioned in the State List without any restriction.
State Legislatures can pass laws on matters in the Concurrent List even if a central law already exists on the same subject.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None of the above
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
QUESTION 1: Answer – (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 – CORRECT: Fundamental Rights are explicitly justiciable, meaning they are enforceable in courts of law. Citizens can file petitions in courts seeking legal remedies if their Fundamental Rights are violated. This is a defining characteristic of Fundamental Rights as opposed to Directive Principles, which are non-justiciable.
Statement 2 – CORRECT: The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, reduced the number of Fundamental Rights from 7 to 6. Originally, Article 31 (Right to Property) was a Fundamental Right, but it was removed by this amendment and converted into a Constitutional Right under Article 300-A.
Statement 3 – CORRECT: As mentioned above, the Right to Property was originally granted as a Fundamental Right under Article 31 of the Constitution (Articles 14-32 contained the six Fundamental Rights originally). However, through the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, it was removed from the Fundamental Rights section and was reconstituted as a Constitutional Right under Article 300-A. This was a significant amendment that reflected a shift in constitutional priorities towards collective welfare.
Relevance: This question tests understanding of the nature of Fundamental Rights, constitutional amendments, and the evolution of constitutional protections in India. It requires knowledge of statutory provisions and constitutional amendments, which are frequently tested in UPSC prelims.
QUESTION 2: Answer – (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 – CORRECT: The Directive Principles of State Policy are indeed positive in nature. Unlike Fundamental Rights, which are negative (they restrict the state from interfering with citizen rights), the DPSP guide the state to take positive action for the welfare of the people. They encompass social, economic, and political justice, and they provide guidelines for framing laws and policies. Examples include provisions for establishing a welfare state, ensuring right to work, and establishing uniform civil code.
Statement 2 – CORRECT: The DPSP are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by courts. However, they carry significant moral and political authority. While not legally binding, they serve as constitutional mandates that guide legislative and executive actions. Courts often refer to DPSP while interpreting laws, as they provide the constitutional context and intention behind legislative actions.
Statement 3 – CORRECT: Article 44 of the Directive Principles specifically mentions the goal of establishing a uniform civil code throughout India. This article states: “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.” This has been a subject of considerable debate and is considered essential for national integration and secular governance, though its implementation remains complex.
Key Difference: While DPSP are not enforceable like Fundamental Rights, they have been given constitutional acknowledgment and are increasingly used by courts to interpret the Constitution’s intent and to ensure that governance aligns with constitutional values.
QUESTION 3: Answer – (b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Explanation:
The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were incorporated into the Constitution through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, during the period of National Emergency declared by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
Historical Context: These duties were added to Part IV-A (new) of the Constitution as Article 51A. The incorporation was based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which suggested the inclusion of duties to balance the extensive list of rights already present in the Constitution.
Original Duties: The 42nd Amendment introduced 10 Fundamental Duties, later modified to 11 through the 86th Amendment Act, 2002. These include duties such as:
To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
To cherish and follow the ideals of the national struggle
To uphold and protect the sovereignty and integrity of India
To defend the country and render national service
To promote harmony and brotherhood among all people
To value and preserve the rich heritage of composite culture
To protect and improve the natural environment
To develop scientific temper and humanism
To safeguard public property
To abjure violence
To provide opportunities for education to children
UPSC Context: Knowledge of when and why Fundamental Duties were added is important as UPSC tests understanding of constitutional evolution and amendments.
QUESTION 4: Answer – (d) None of the above
Explanation:
Statement 1 – INCORRECT: While a Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament, it can be introduced by any member (not exclusively by a Government Minister). According to Article 368, any member can introduce a bill to amend the Constitution, though in practice, Government Ministers typically introduce such bills. Additionally, prior permission from the President is not required for such bills.
Statement 2 – CORRECT: For amendments affecting the federal character of the Constitution (such as changes to the Union List, the executive power of States, or the conditions of the Governor’s office), the bill must be ratified by the legislatures of at least half (one-half) of the States by a simple majority. This provision safeguards the federal nature of the Constitution and ensures that major structural changes aren’t made unilaterally by the Union.
Statement 3 – INCORRECT: Once a Constitutional Amendment bill is passed by both houses of Parliament with the required majorities, the President’s assent is mandatory, not discretionary. The President has no power to withhold assent or return the bill for reconsideration. This was established through the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, which made Presidential assent to Constitutional Amendment bills compulsory.
Therefore, Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect, and Statement 2 is correct but stated alone would make only option (b) viable, but the question requires selecting from the given options where Statement 2 appears incomplete.
QUESTION 5: Answer – (c) To levy taxes and control public expenditure directly
Explanation:
Parliamentary Standing Committees perform critical oversight functions but do not have the power to levy taxes or directly control public expenditure. Their roles include:
Correct Functions (Options A, B, D):
Scrutiny of Ministry Work (A): Standing Committees examine the working, policies, and operations of various Government Ministries and Departments. They review their budgets, programs, and performance.
Examine Grants and Suggest Economies (B): Particularly the Estimates Committee examines demands for grants presented in the budget and suggests methods for achieving economies in public expenditure.
Investigation and Reporting (D): Parliamentary Committees investigate matters referred to them by the Houses and submit reports with findings and recommendations.
Incorrect Function (C): Committees cannot directly levy taxes or allocate expenditures. These powers remain with Parliament (full house), the Finance Ministry, and the Executive. While committees examine and scrutinize expenditures, they make recommendations rather than direct spending decisions. Tax levying is exclusively a legislative function of Parliament as a whole.
Types of Parliamentary Committees: These include the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), Estimates Committee, Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU), and Department-related Standing Committees (DRSCs), each with specific oversight mandates.
QUESTION 6: Answer – (b) High Courts have original jurisdiction in civil cases exceeding a specified value and constitutional matters
Explanation:
Option A – INCORRECT: High Courts possess multiple types of jurisdictions:
Appellate Jurisdiction: Over lower court decisions
Original Jurisdiction: In specific matters
Supervisory Jurisdiction: Over lower courts and tribunals
So stating they possess “only appellate jurisdiction” is incorrect.
Option B – CORRECT: High Courts indeed have:
Original Jurisdiction in Civil Matters: High Courts can entertain civil cases involving matters exceeding certain pecuniary limits and disputes of substantial importance.
Original Jurisdiction in Constitutional Matters: High Courts can entertain cases involving constitutional questions, enforcement of Fundamental Rights, and issuance of writs under Article 226 of the Constitution.
This is a core function of High Courts, particularly through writ jurisdiction, which allows High Courts to issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and legal duties.
Option C – INCORRECT: High Courts have supervisory jurisdiction over all lower courts and tribunals within their territorial jurisdiction. They can supervise, review, and guide the functioning of subordinate judiciary and quasi-judicial bodies.
Option D – INCORRECT: High Courts have extensive writ jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution, specifically for issuing writs to enforce Fundamental Rights. They are the primary forum for seeking remedies for violation of Fundamental Rights through writs.
QUESTION 7: Answer – (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 – CORRECT: The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was established as a separate constitutional body in 2004. Prior to this, Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes were covered under a combined commission. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 came into force on February 19, 2004, creating the NCST as an independent body. The first Chairperson was Kunwar Singh.
Statement 2 – CORRECT: The NCST’s composition includes:
Chairperson: Appointed by the President
Vice-Chairperson: Appointed by the President
Three Other Members: Appointed by the President
All members are appointed by the President of India based on recommendations from the Government. The total strength is five members, making NCST a relatively compact but focused constitutional body.
Statement 3 – INCORRECT: The NCST does not levy taxes. Its primary functions include:
Investigating and Monitoring: Investigating complaints related to violations of rights and welfare of Scheduled Tribes
Advising Government: Providing advice to the Government on matters related to Scheduled Tribes
Reviewing Laws and Policies: Reviewing the implementation of laws, schemes, and policies meant for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes
Inquiry and Reporting: Conducting inquiries on matters affecting Scheduled Tribes and submitting reports
Safeguarding Interests: Representing the interests of Scheduled Tribes in various forums
The NCST is a constitutional watchdog for Scheduled Tribes’ interests, not a revenue-generating or tax-levying body.
QUESTION 8: Answer – (b) Article 350B
Explanation:
The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed under Article 350B of the Indian Constitution.
Background:
Original Position: The original Indian Constitution did not include provisions for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Addition: Following recommendations by the States Reorganization Commission (1953-55), the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 added Article 350B to the Constitution, specifically under Part XVII (which deals with languages).
Establishment: The office was formally established in 1957, and the officer is designated as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.
Functions:
Investigating complaints regarding safeguards for linguistic minorities
Reporting to the President on matters affecting linguistic minorities
Recommending measures for the protection of minority languages
Monitoring the implementation of constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities
Related Articles:
Article 350: Every person has the right to petition Parliament or State Legislatures in their language
Article 350A: Facilities for education through mother tongue in primary schools
Article 351: Union’s obligation to promote Hindi language
Significance: India’s linguistic diversity with over 22 officially recognized languages makes the role of this officer crucial in ensuring that minority language speakers are not disadvantaged and their cultural and linguistic rights are protected.
QUESTION 9: Answer – (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 – CORRECT: The CAG’s appointment and terms reflect constitutional protection to ensure independence:
Appointment: By the President of India
Tenure: Fixed term of 6 years from the date the officer assumes office
Removal: Can be removed only by the President on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity, following a process similar to impeachment (through a resolution passed by both houses of Parliament)
This tenure protection ensures the CAG’s functional independence and enables critical auditing without fear of arbitrary removal.
Statement 2 – INCORRECT: The CAG’s audit jurisdiction is comprehensive and extends to both Union and State Governments. Specifically:
Union Accounts: Receipts and expenditures of the Government of India
State Accounts: Receipts and expenditures of all State Governments
Public Sector Undertakings: Accounts of various public sector enterprises
Constitutional Bodies: Audit of various constitutional and autonomous bodies
The CAG is the supreme audit institution responsible for ensuring financial propriety and accountability across the entire public sector in India.
Statement 3 – CORRECT: The CAG’s reports have significant constitutional visibility:
Central Audit Report: Placed before both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha)
State Audit Reports: Placed before respective State Legislative Assemblies
Public Availability: These reports become public documents, enabling scrutiny by Parliament, legislatures, media, and civil society
The CAG reports often reveal financial irregularities, inefficiencies, and potential fraud, leading to inquiries and reforms.
Constitutional Basis: Article 148-151 of the Indian Constitution provide for the CAG’s establishment, powers, and functions.
QUESTION 10: Answer – (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 – CORRECT: Members of State Legislatures enjoy parliamentary privileges and immunities similar to members of Parliament:
Immunity from Suits: Members cannot be sued or prosecuted for anything said or voted in the legislature or its committees
Protection During Sessions: Members enjoy protection from arrest during legislative sessions (except in certain cases)
Absolute Privilege: Statements made during legislative proceedings cannot form the basis of defamation suits
This immunity ensures that members can speak freely without fear of legal repercussions, which is essential for democratic functioning. However, this privilege is not absolute and can be restricted by laws made by Parliament.
Statement 2 – INCORRECT: State Legislatures do not have unrestricted powers regarding the State List:
Subject to Concurrent List: If the same subject appears in the Concurrent List, the Union can also legislate
Subject to Union Authority: In case of conflict, Union laws prevail over State laws
During Emergency: During a declared emergency, Parliament can make laws on State List subjects
Constitutional Restrictions: All State legislation must conform to constitutional provisions, including Fundamental Rights and other constitutional limits
State Legislatures are subordinate to the national Parliament in matters of concurrent jurisdiction and cannot act in a manner contrary to the Constitution.
Statement 3 – CORRECT: On matters listed in the Concurrent List (7th Schedule):
Concurrent Power: Both Union and State Legislatures can legislate
No Absolute Prohibition: A State law on a Concurrent List subject remains valid even if a Union law exists on the same subject, provided the State law does not conflict with the Union law
Conflict Resolution: In case of conflict, the Union law prevails to the extent of inconsistency
State Autonomy: States retain legislative power on Concurrent List matters where Union has not legislated or where the State law doesn’t conflict
Examples of Concurrent List subjects: Education, Labor laws, Marriage and divorce (personal laws), Electricity, Commerce, Social security, Public health, and many others.
Constitutional Framework: The 7th Schedule of the Constitution divides legislative powers into Union List (items over which only the Union has jurisdiction), State List (items over which only States have jurisdiction), and Concurrent List (subjects over which both can legislate).
